General awareness questions and answers of SBI CLERK EXAM which held on 16-08-14

What is the fullform ECB - External commercial borrowing
Who is the author of Lowland ? - Jhumpa Lahiri
what are the limits for atm withdrawls free of charge ? - 5 times for same bank (revision is going to be implemented shortly)
What is the capital of Ehiopia ? - Addis Ababa
world population day is on? – 11 July
Plastic money refers to - Debit card
Budget for skill development - Rs 100 crore allocated for a start-up programme for rural youth
Yuan is the currency of? - China
Playing to win is autobiography of ? - Saina Nehwal
2016 uber and thomas cup will be held In - Kunshan, China
Who is the current Food processing minister - Harsimreet kaur badal
Who is Mario goteze ? - German Footballer
The accidental prime minister book was written by- Sanjaya Baru
What is the BRICS development bank Base Capital? - 100 billion $
What is the full form of KVP : Kisan Vikas Patra
Ramoji film city is located in ? - Hyderabad
Credit rating in India is done by which body ? - CIBIL and ICRA
Commodity exchange Regulate By? - MCX
An institutions which is related to agriculture banking - NABARD

tags: SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper, sbi clerk, sbi previous papers,

Fee challan for SBI associate banks PO of 4987 vacancies June 2011

 Fee challan for SBI associate banks PO of 4987 vacancies June 2011

Fee payment challans for SBI 4987 POs in associate banks as a part of June 2011 recruitment are now available for downloading. Application fee for SC / ST / PWD  is Rs 50/- and for others Rs 500.

There are two copies of fee payment challan voucher. One is branch copy and one is candidate's copy and make sure that after paying the required fee for SBI June 2011 4987 PO for associated banks you get the deposit Journal No, as it would be needed at the time of applying online.

Download SBI associate banks PO June 2011 here

SBI 4987 PO Associate Bank August 2011 exam syllabus, sample paer, books, pattern

SBI 4987 PO Associate Bank August 2011 exam syllabus, sample paer, books, pattern

On August 7, 2011 SBI will be conducting a written exam for the recruitment of 4987 PO in associate banks. Here is a look at its exam pattern, what and how to prepare and download books for SBI PO exam as well.


Phase-I - Written Examination :
Time Duration: 3 Hrs.
(Objective & Descriptive Type Tests -- Max. Marks - 250).

The duration of objective type test will be 2 hours max. marks 200 and will consist of :

i) Test of English Language (Grammer, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.): 50 questions 50 marks.
ii) Test of General Awareness, Marketing & Computers:  50 questions 50 marks.
iii) Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation:  50 questions 50 marks.
iv) Test of Reasoning (High Level): 50 questions 50 marks.


Phase-II : Group Discussion & Interview :
Max Marks - 50 (GD - 20, Interview - 30)
The aggregate marks of objective and descriptive test will be arranged in descending order and the candidate who have qualified in both the written tests will be called for group discussion and interview depending upon the vacancies in each category, subject to maximum of 3 times of the vacancies.

Recruitment of 4987 Probationary Officer (PO) in Associate Banks State Bank of India (SBI)

Recruitment of 4987 Probationary Officer (PO) in Associte Banks State Bank of India (SBI)

Central Recruitment & Promotion Department, State Bank of India (SBI), Corporate Centre, Mumbai invites Online applications from Indian citizens for appointment of 4987 Probationary Officers posts in State Bank of India Associate Banks (State Bank of Travancore  SBT, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur SBBJ, State Bank of Hyderabad SBH, State Bank of Mysore SBM, State Bank of Patiala SBP etc.) upto  25/06/2011  :

   * Probationary Officer (PO) : 4987 posts in various states in India (SBBJ-1000,
SBH-1416, SBM-843, SBP-1328, SBT-404) (see detailed advt. for detailed Bank-wise, State-wise and Category-wise vacancies) ,
Pay Scale : Rs. 14500-25700/-,
Qualification : Graduation in any discipline from a recognised College / University, Age : 21-30 years as on 01/06/2011. Age relaxation as per Govt. rules.

Selection Procedure : Final selection will be made on the basis of performance in the written test on 07/08/2011 and Group Discussion & Interview for selected candidates.

Application Fee : Rs. 500/- (for SC/ST/PWD Rs. 50/- only) to be deposited in any branch of SBI by a prescribed deposit slip and get receipt up to 23/06/2011. Details of the payment should be entered in online application form.

How to Apply : Apply Online at SBI website from 04/06/2011 to 25/06/2011.

Important Dates :

  1. Date of starting of Online submission of application : 04/06/2011
  2. Last date of Online submission of Application : 25/06/2011
  3. Date of Written Examination : 07/08/2011

For more information, please visit the Recruitment page at SBI website http://www.sbi.co.in/

Descriptive type test in SBI PO Exam 2011

SBI PO 2011 SELECTION PROCEDURE :

Phase- I : Written Examination -- Combined Duration 3 Hrs. (Combined Objective & Descriptive Type Tests)

 -- [Max marks-250 (combined)]

Objective Type Test:

The duration of objective type test will be 2 hours, Max. marks 200 and will consist of :

• Test of English Language (Grammer, Vocabulary, Comprehension etc.)
• Test of General Awareness, Marketing & Computers
• Test of Data Analysis & Interpretation
• Test of Reasoning (High Level)

Descriptive Type Test:

• The duration of Descriptive type test will be 1 hour, Max. marks-50 
• The test will be of "Test of English Language (Comprehension, short precis, letter writing & essay)"
• Descriptive test paper of only those candidates will be evaluated who are adequately high in percentile ranking in each of all the four objective tests and have scored overall aggregate 40% and above in case of General category and aggregate 35% and above in case SC/ST/OBC/PWD category. 
• The qualifying marks for descriptive test will also be overall aggregate 40% for General category and overall aggregate 35% for SC/ ST/OBC/PWD. 
• The merit list of written examination will be based on the aggregate of the marks obtained by the candidates in Objective and Descriptive tests.

State Bank of India Clerk Exam-2008 Solved Paper

State Bank of India Clerk Exam-2008 Solved Paper

General English : Solved Paper

(Held on 6-7-2008)


Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold
ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had
been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands.
The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the
world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of
their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The
youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all
day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on
trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and
servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, "Maa, you gave a
present to everyone, but you didn't give me anything !"

His mother laughed, "I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what's left for
you." She kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, "Don't I get a gift ?"

"But when I am close to you, don't I get something from your own hands ?"

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. "This is all I have in my own
hands. It is the most precious of all."

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel

(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman's eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn't be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son

(B) The woman's eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman's family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the
servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as
used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C)
/than we expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No
error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the
banking sector. (D) No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares
to fall. (D) No error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error
(E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No
correction is required.' mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) "We couldn't climb the mountain. How could you?", they asked, "It wasn't your baby
!" she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in
the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child's mother coming down the mountain that they
hadn't yet figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D)
their basic needs. All correct (E)

67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)

68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All
correct (E)

69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for
customers. All correct (E)

70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon.
All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/
phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle's house
where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in
return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I
spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines
that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new
…(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)…
books. This has benefited me greatly.


71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around

72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone

73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played

74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which

75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable

76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement

77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees

78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship

79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while

80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange

(D) invest
(E) buy

Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace 'than' with 'as'.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change 'Mostly' to 'Most'.
54. (C) Change 'have' to 'has'.
55. (B) Replace 'of' with 'in'.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

tags: sbi clerk model papers,

Bank Clerk Grade Solved Papers...

HERE ARE SOME QUESTIONS PAPERS FOR BANK CLERK EXAM HOPE THEY MAY BE USEFUL TO U.

• 1Allahabad-Bank-Clerk-Exam.-2008.pdf -

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• 74k View Download

Solved Paper:Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. (Held on 30-08-2008)

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. 2008 (Held on 30-08-2008)

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word's dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.

(A) red

(B) green

(C) blue

(D) black

(E) None of these

Ans (A)

2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or

actions.

(A) Search

(B) Cut

(C) Document

(D) Undo

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___

(A) a formula

(B) text

(C) a name

(D) a title

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.

(A) Word processing

(B) Presentation graphics

(C) Database Management Systems

(D) Electronic Spreadsheet

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte

(B) megabyte

(C) gigabyte

(D) terabyte

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.

(A) Formatting

(B) Merging

(C) Embedding

(D) Splitting

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.

(A) communication

(B) application

(C) system

(D) word-processing

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____

(A) Primary-clicking

(B) pointing

(C) Double-clicking

(D) Secondary-clicking

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___

(A) cells

(B) sheets

(C) block lines

(D) gridlines

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion

point.

(A) press the left mouse key

(B) double-click the right mouse key

(C) press the BACKSPACE key

(D) press the delete key

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.

B manage the central processing unit (CPU).

C manage memory and storage.

D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.

Ans (D)

12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.

A CD

B. BIOS

C. CPU

D. DVD

AnS (B)

13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.

A GUIs

B Icons

C Menus

D Windows

Answer: C

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at

the same time.

A Multitasking

B Streamlining

C Multiuser

D Simulcasting

Answer: A

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of

immediate attention is called an:

A action.

B event.

C interrupt.

D activity.

Answer: C

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task

requiring the processor's attention.

A CPU

B slice of time

C stack

D event

Answer: B

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are

known as:

A application programming interfaces (APIs).

B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).

C device drivers.

D bootstrap loaders.

Answer: A

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

A point-and-click

B user-friendly

C command-driven

D Mac

Answer: C

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.

B peripheral device.

C utility program.

D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.

Answer: D

20. A spooler is a(n):

A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.

B print job.

C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.

D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.

Answer: C

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

A on a floppy disk.

B in the CPU.

C in a flash card.

D on the hard drive.

Answer: D

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.

B hold a program's data or instructions in virtual memory when it can't fit in RAM.

C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.

D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.

Answer: B

23. The definition of thrashing is:

A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.

B insufficient hard disk space.

C too many processors being managed by the operating system.

D inaccurate information stored in the registry.

Answer: A

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.

B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.

C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.

D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.

Answer: B

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

A configuration.

B accessibility.

C authentication.

D logging in.

Answer: C

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer's:

A CPU.

27. The following message generally means:

A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.

B the CD drive is not functioning.

C the BIOS is corrupted.

D there is a problem loading a device.

Answer: A

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up

process?

A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings

B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings

C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings

D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system

Answer: B

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:

A load the operating system into RAM.

B the power-on self-test.

C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).

D load application programs.

Answer: D

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its

permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.

A BIOS

B API

C device driver

D supervisor program

Answer: A

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

A RAM.

B ROM.

C the CPU.

D the hard drive.

Answer: B

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________

process.

A configuration

B CMOS

C POST

D ROM

Answer: C

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:

A registry.

B API.

C CMOS.

D kernel.

Answer: D

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?

A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.

B The video card and video memory are tested.

C The BIOS identification process occurs.

D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.

Answer: A

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:

A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.

B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually

changed.

C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).

D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.

Answer: A

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer's contents in a hierarchical structure of

directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:

A files.

B folders.

D drives.

D systems.

Answer: D

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:

A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.

B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.

C more than one window can be open at a time.

D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.

Answer: A

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:

A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.

B Files can be generated from an application.

C Files are stored in RAM.

D Files should be organized in folders.

Answer: C

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:

A an open folder.

B the folder contains subfolders.

C a text file.

D a graphics file.

Answer: B

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best

viewing option is the __________ view.

A List

B Thumbnails

C Details

D Icon

Answer: C

State Bank of India Clerk Exam General English : Solved Paper- 2008

State Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2008

General English : Solved Paper

(Held on 6-7-2008)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments,

clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well

in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone.

The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son

had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the world. The other sons had split up

over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across

the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and

stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the

presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and

servants. The neighbours looked on.

The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.

The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, "Maa, you gave a present to

everyone, but you didn't give me anything !"

His mother laughed, "I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what's left for you." She

kissed him on the forehead.

The child said in a tearful voice, "Don't I get a gift ?"

"You'll get it when you go far away."

"But when I am close to you, don't I get something from your own hands ?"

His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. "This is all I have in my own hands. It is the

most precious of all."

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?

(A) He was restless by nature

(B) He did not want to stay at home

(C) He was rich and could afford to travel

(D) His job was such that he had to travel

(E) None of these

42. Why did the woman's eldest son not attend the festival ?

(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home

(B) He had quarrelled with his mother

(C) His wife did not allow him to return home

(D) His job prevented him from taking leave

(E) None of these

43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?

1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.

2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.

3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn't be bored.

(A) None

(B) Only 1

(C) Only 2

(D) Both 1 and 2

(E) All 1, 2 and 3

44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?

1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.

2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.

3. He stood at the door with servants.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 3

(D) Only 3

(E) None of these

45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?

(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly

(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age

(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time

(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy

(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad

46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?

(A) She taught him the value of patience

(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers

(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts

(D) She gave him a hug to express her love

(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son

(B) The woman's eldest son lived abroad

(C) The members of the woman's family did not care about her

(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the servants

(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her

Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word

printed in bold as used in the passage.

50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as used in the

passage.

(A) Calmly

(B) Happily

(C) Willingly

(D) Fortunately

(E) Softly

Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if

any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the

answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C) /than we

expected. (D) No error (E)

52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No error (E)

53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the banking sector. (D)

No error (E)

54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares to fall. (D) No

error (E)

55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the

phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and

correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction is required.' mark (E) as the answer.

56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—

(A) Every loan

(B) Each one of the loan

(C) Any of the loan

(D) All of the loan

(E) No correction required

57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—

(A) Taking place at

(B) Taken after

58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.

(A) had asked

(B) having asked about

(C) was asked that

(D) is asking

(E) no correction required

59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—

(A) While considering

(B) Consideration of

(C) Considering

(D) Being considerate to

(E) No correction required

60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—

(A) That known when

(B) Who knows how

(C) Which knows how

(D) Knowing what

(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the

proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.

(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.

(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.

(4) "We couldn't climb the mountain. How could you?", they asked, "It wasn't your baby !" she

replied.

(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in the mountains.

(6) Two days later they noticed the child's mother coming down the mountain that they hadn't yet

figured out how to climb.

61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

(E) (5)

62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (6)

(B) (5)

(C) (4)

(D) (3)

63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

(E) (5)

64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

(E) (5)

65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) (3)

(D) (4)

(E) (5)

Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is

given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either

wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt

or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are

correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your

answer.

66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D) their basic

needs. All correct (E)

67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)

68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All correct (E)

69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for customers. All

correct (E)

70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of

which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle's house where I …(73)…

his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in return however, was far more

…(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I spent with his family I had an …(76)… to

read the vast amount of books and magazines that he possessed. This improved my English to some …

(77)… Reading became my new …(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I

began to …(80)… books. This has benefited me greatly.

Answers:

41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)

45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)

48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)

51. (D) Replace 'than' with 'as'.

52. (E)

53. (A) Change 'Mostly' to 'Most'.

54. (C) Change 'have' to 'has'.

55. (B) Replace 'of' with 'in'.

56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)

61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)

66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)

71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)

76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

General Awareness Solved Question Paper For SBI Clerk Examination

General Awareness Solved Question Paper For SBI Clerk Examination

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)

(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India's Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project 'Bhoomi Keralam' launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India's Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India's percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India's most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….

(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?

(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the
people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'The Exile' ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per
quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'The Namesake' ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as 'Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear
Energy' ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea

(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. 'Merdeka Cup' is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India's Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about 'Antyodaya Anna Yojana' ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper - English..

English

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.

There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master used to happily recall, "One day when I went into the woods to pluck flowers, I found
this baby under a pipal tree." He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she was his daughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word.

The music master grew old and didn't see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many people including young men travelled from far and wide to hear her sing. This
made the music master's heart quake with fear. "You will choose one of them as your husband. What is to become of me ?" The girl replied, "I shall not be apart from
you." But on a full moon night during the harvest festival, the master's chief disciple touched his feet reverently and said, "Master grant me your permission for your
daughter has agreed to marry me." The master's tears flowed freely, "She has chosen well. Go and fetch her, let me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will
sing together." The two began to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger. "Your daughter is very fortunate-the king has sent
for her," the messenger said. At the palace the Queen summoned the girl to her and said, "I place upon you the honour of making sure my daughter is never unhappy at
her husband's home." There wasn't a single tear in the girl's eyes but she thought of the master and her heart was heavy.

That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess's royal chariot led the procession and the girl's palanquin followed close behind carrying trunks
of silks, jewellry and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on both sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarsen
stood still by the wayside. A collective sigh escaped the crowd gathered there wishing that the princess wouldn't feel homesick in her faraway home.

1. Which of the following can be said about the girl ?
(1) She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby.
(2) She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.
(3) She was only allowed to sing with the master's permission.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these

2. What was the girl's reaction to leaving home ?
(A) She was honoured to be serving the princess
(B) Sadness at leaving the master.
(C) She entrusted the task of looking after the music master to Kumarasen
(D) She was thrilled to be living in luxury
(E) None of these

3. What task was entrusted to the girl by the Queen ?
(A) Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely
(B) Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj
(C) Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy
(D) Ensuring the princess' happiness
(E) None of these

4. What was the master's reaction to the girl's decision to marry his disciple ?
(A) He was upset and cried
(B) He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together
(C) He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away
(D) He was pleased with her choice of husband
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married.
(2) The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer.
(3) The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) None of these

6. Why was the princess going on a journey ?
(1) She was going to her prospective husband's home to get engaged.
(2) Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen.
(3) To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her parents.
(A) None
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Both (1) and (2)
(E) Both (2) and (3)

7. Why was the master afraid ?
(A) He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly
(B) He would be all alone after the girl's marriage
(C) The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home
(D) He was slowly going blind.
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 8–9) Choose the word which is MOST NEARLY theSAME in MEANING as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

68. fortunate
(A) rich
(B) liked
(C) happy
(D) successful
(E) lucky

9. raised
(A) nurtured
(B) lifted
(C) grew
(D) built
(E) high

10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the wordCollective as used in the passage—
(A) alone
(B) separately
(C) united
(D) partial
(E) single

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

11. In present the (A)/ prices of food grains (B)/ are high all (C)/ over the world. (D) No error (E)

12. Majority of the banks (A)/ today uses technology (B)/ to reach out to those (C)/living in rural areas. (D) No error (E)

13. I will give (A)/ you the advance (B)/ if you repay it as (C)/ soon as possibly. (D) No error (E)

14. Though he is very (A)/ wealthy and powerful (B)/ he has any(C)/ concern for the poor. (D) No error (E)

15. Mala has the (A)/ ability t o handle (B)/ many tasks at (C)/ the same time. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrases given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice—
(A) came across
(B) is come upto
(C) came to
(D) comes with
(E) No correction required

17. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote—
(A) has been of
(B) being over
(C) who is having over
(D) who is been
(E) No correction required

18. The magazine that we subscribe to is published monthly—
(A) which is subscribed
(B) we are subscribed
(C) whom we subscribe
(D) whichever we subscribe
(E) No correction required

19. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty—
(A) All of his
(B) Some of the
(C) Only of his
(D) One of his
(E) No correction required

20. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank—
(A) have deposits in
(B) had deposited
(C) with deposits
(D) have deposited
(E) No correction required



21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)

25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)

(D) (4)
(E) (5)



Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four
words printed in bold may be eitherwrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any.
Theletter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. 'All Correct' as
your answer.

26. We have incurred

(A) an expense

(B) of over fifty thousands

(C) this year alone.

(D) All correct (E)

27. World Earth Day is celeberated

(A) as a means

(B) to make people aware

(C) about the environment.

(D) All correct (E)

28. The key issue (A) discused (B) at the meeting was how toresolve

(C) the food crisis. (D) All correct (E)

29. He deserves (A) some recognition (B) for working diligently (C) for the passed (D) five years. All correct (E)

30. There are many employment (A) opportunities (B) for freshgraduates (C) in the market (D) today. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I had …(31)… to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this. First, I took very …(32)… part in professional associations. I …(33)… the
National President of the Indian Society for Training and Development–one of the …(34)… organizations for HR professionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My
communication skills …(35)…. It also taught me …(36)… to conduct meetings in an effective manner. My job …(37)… me to different parts of the country and I …(38)
… believe that …(39)…provided me with an education. I also wrote a lot. Newspaper editors often approached me with …(40)… to write articles for their publications.

31. (A) achieved
(B) aim
(C) try
(D) dreamed
(E) wanted

32. (A) selected
(B) active
(C) interesting
(D) often
(E) joint

33. (A) elected
(B) voted
(C) became
(D) applied
(E) decided

34. (A) respected
(B) status
(C) impressed
(D) aged
(E) common

35. (A) lacked
(B) grown
(C) learnt
(D) improved
(E) earned

36. (A) that
(B) why
(C) how
(D) never
(E) anyhow

37. (A) saw
(B) showed
(C) posted
(D) discovered
(E) took

38. (A) quiet
(B) firmly
(C) strong
(D) first
(E) not

39. (A) travelling
(B) journey
(C) visit
(D) migrating
(E) shift

40. (A) wish
(B) offer
(C) appointments
(D) requests
(E) commands

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
(1) The sailor was told it was placed there as warning signal to sailors to warn them of the danger.
(2) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship.
(3) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline.
(4) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very rock.
(5) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock.
(6) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.

Answers :

1.(C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) Write 'At' in place of 'In'. 12. (B) Write 'use'.13. (D) Write 'possible'.14. (C) Write 'no' in place

of 'any'.15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (E) 19. (D)20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (D)25. (B) 26. (C) Write change 'thousands' to 'thousand'.27. (A) Write 'celebrated'. 28. (B)

Write 'discussed'. 29. (D) Write 'past'. 30. (E) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A)35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (D)

SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper - Numerical Ability

SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper - Numerical Ability

SBI Bank Clerk exam model Papers for 2009 recruitment or SBI previous papers or SBI Clerk sample question Papers.

SBI BANK CLERK MODEL TEST PAPER

NUMERICAL ABILITY

1.Let R = qs—4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to

a. 11

b. 14

c. 20

d. 21

Answer-d

2. If 272/3 × 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is

a. -1

b. 0

c. 1

d. 2

Answer -b

3. 0.333 …. × 0.444 …. is equal to

a. 0.148148148 ….

b. 0.777 ….

c. 0.121212 ….

d. 1.333 ….

Answer-a

5. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get

a. 96

b. 104

c. 108

d. 109

Answer-d

6. The number of prime factors of (6)10×(7)17×(55)27

a. 54

b. 64

c. 81

d. 91

Answer-d

7. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is -

a. 125m

b. 135 m

c. 159 m

d. 175 m

Answer-c

8.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how

much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B?

a. 7 min & 15 sec

b. 7 min & 45 sec

c. 8 min & 5 sec

d. 8 min & 15 sec

Answer-d

9. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains

half milk and half water?

a. 7:5

b. 1:2

c. 2:1

d. 6:5

Answer-a

10.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the

same distance. What is the original speed of the car?

a. 45 km/hr

b. 50 km/hr

c. 55 km/hr

d. 65 km/hr

Answer-c

11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by

him was

a. 450 km

b. 675 km

c. 337.5 km

d. 1350 km

Answer-b

12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is

a. Rs. 84

b. Rs. 147

c. Rs. 196

d. Rs. 240

Answer-a

13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in

the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is

a. Rs. 3500

b. Rs. 3000

c. Rs. 2500

d. Rs. 4000

Answer-c

14.The ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is

a. Rs. 1700

b. Rs. 1800

c. Rs. 2000

d. Rs. 2200

Answer-c

15.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B

alone can finish the work in

a. 48 days

b. 60 days

c. 75 days

d. 90 days

Answer-d

16.The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is

a. 1848 cm3

b. 1232 cm3

c. 1078 cm3

d. 980 cm3

Answer-c

17.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is

a. 30 cm

b. 60 cm

c. 72 cm

d. 108 cm

Answer-b

18.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field is-

a. 125 sq. cm

b. 112.5 sq. cm

c. 110 sq. cm

d. 100?2 sq. m

Answer-b

19.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is -

a. 10 cm

b. 24 cm

c. 26 cm

d. 27.5 cm

Answer-b

20.The ratio of 435 : 25 is same as

a. 4 : 1

b. 2 :1

c. 7 : 5

d. 7 :10

Answer-a

21. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is

a. ?? : ?6

b. ?? : ?6

c. ?? : ?3

d. ?6 : ??

Answer-d

22.The marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash

payment, then what is the cash price of the table?

a. Rs. 2400

b. Rs. 2160

c. Rs. 2100

d. Rs. 2052

Answer-d

23. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is

a. 10%

b. 12%

c. 15%

d. 16? %

Answer-c

24.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4½% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest

becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Answer-b

25.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years?

a. Rs. 1,20,000

b. Rs. 1,92,000

c. Rs. 1,24,000

d. Rs. 96,000

Answer-b

26. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 12½%

d. 25%

Answer-d

27. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and

gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was

a. 30 dozen

b. 40 dozen

c. 50 dozen

d. 60 dozen

Answer-d

28.On selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is

a. Rs. 370

b. Rs. 385

c. Rs. 390

d. Rs. 400

Answer-c

29.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to

a. Rs. 950

b. Rs. 980

c. Rs. 1010

d. Rs. 1040

Answer-d

30.Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is

a. 24

b. 36

c. 17

d. 72

Answer-d

31.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in

2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is -

a. 15

b. 12

c. 10

d. 20

Answer-a

32.Price of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by

how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500?

a. Rs. 300

b. Rs. 350

c. Rs. 375

d. Rs. 475

Answer-d

SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper - General Awareness

SBI Bank PO/Clerical Exam Model Paper - General Awareness

SBI Bank Clerk exam model Papers for 2009 recruitment or SBI previous papers or SBI Clerk sample question Papers or SBI Clerk Placement Papers of General
Awareness, SBI Clerk General English, SBI Bank Clerk Numerical ability papers is as follows.

SBI Clerk Exam :

General Awareness

1. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of -

(A) films
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Politics
(E) Status
ANS (A)

2. Which of the following is not a food crop ?

(A) Wheat
(B) Barley
(C) Maize
(D) Gram
(E) Cotton
ANS (E)

3. Union Budget always presented first in -

(A) The Loksabha
(B) The Rajyasabha
(C) Joint session of Parliament
(D) Meeting of the Union cabinet
(E) The State Assemblies
ANS (A)

4. The Government of India has earmarked about Rs. 70,000 crore in Union Budget to help which of the following sections of the society ?

(A) Children who are bonded labour
(B) Persons working in hazardous industries
(C) Farmers(placementpapers.fresherjobs4u.com)
(D) People living below poverty line
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

5. Jose Louise has taken over as the prime minister of -

(A) France
(B) Argentina
(C) Spain
(D) New zealand

(E) Italy
ANS (C)

6. The conference of Economic/ Finance Ministers of ASEAN was held recently in -

(A) Jakarta
(B) Bali
(C) New Delhi
(D) Tokyo
(E) Islamabad
ANS (B)

7. Which of the following International forums/ organizations has made a decision of not to go for reckless lending ?

A) G-7
(B) G-8
(C) SAARC
(D) World Bank
(E) IMF
ANS (E)

8.Mahmood Ahmadinejad who was in India on an official visit recently is the -

(A) Prime Minister of Iraq
(B) President of Iran
(C) Prime Minister of Iran
(D) President of Iraq
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

9. India recently started "Maitree Express" to which of the following destinations ?

(A) Islamabad
(B) Karanchi
(C) Dhaka
(D) Kathmandu
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

10. The first ever General elction took place in which of the following countries in Indian sub-continent ?

(A) Bhutan
(B) China
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Sri Lanka
ANS (A)

11. As per the latest figures published in the newspapers the growth of economy in India for the fiscal year ended March 2008 has been at which of the following levels ?

About -

(A) 6 %
(B) 6.5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 7.5 %
(E) 9 %
ANS (E)

12. Name of B.S.Yeddyurappa was recently in news as he has taken over as the -

(A) Governor of Karnataka
(B) Chief Minister of Karnataka
(C) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
(D) Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

13. The Govt. of India Planning to put up a bill in the parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all those who are of the age of -

(A) 3 Years
(B) 5 Years
(C) 6-14 Years
(D) 12-20 Years
(E) Upto 21 Years
ANS (C)

14. "World No Tobacco Day" is observed on which of the following days ?

(A) Ist May
(B) 10th May
(C) 21st May
(D) 31 st May

(E) 1st June
ANS (D)

15. Late Vijay Tendulkar who died recently was a famous -

(A) Social Work
(B) Politician
(C) Sportsman
(D) Play Wright
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

16. Mnay times we erad in newspapers about the GM Crops.What is the full form of GM ?

(A) Genetically Marketed
(B) Genetically Modified
(C) Green & Moisturious
(D) Globally Marketed
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

17. Barack Obama whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?

(A) UK
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

18. Which of the following is an Oscar winning documentary on climate change in which former US Vice President Al Gore has featured as a narrator ?

A) An inconvenient truth
(B) The Sea
(C) Road to prediction
(D) Remember My Name
(E) None of these
ANS (A)

19. Defence minister from 27 nations recently gathered at which of the following places to discuss security amongst the countries of Asia Pacific Region ?

(A) Beijing
(B) New Delhi
(C) Singapore
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (C)

20. Who amongst the following is NOT a Lawn Tennis Player ?

(A) Serena Williams
(B) Katarina Srebotnik
(C) Andy Murray
(D) Nichlas Almagro
(E) Ricky Ponting
ANS (E)

21. The head office of the Stae Bank Of India is located in -

A) Kolkat
(B) New Delhi
(C) Pune
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) None of these
ANS (E) Mumbai

22. Which of the following is NOT the name of the sensitive index of any global stock exchange ?

(A) Nasdaq
(B) Nikkei
(C) Kospi
(D) Dow
(E) Combix
ANS (E)

23. Mnay times we read the term 'ECB'in financial newspapers.What is the full form of 'ECB'?

(A) Essential Commercial Borrowing
(B) Essential Credit & Borrowing
(C) External Credit & Business
(D) External Commercial Borrowing
(E) None Of These

ANS (D)

24. Who amongst the following is the new face in Union Cabinet after it was reshuffled recently ?

A) Mnai Shankar Aiyer
(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Priyanka
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) None of these
ANS (D)

25. Who amongst the following has taken over as the chief minister of Nagaland ?

(A) Manik Sarkar
(B) Dinesh Nandan Sahay
(C) P.Longon
(D) K.Shankaranarayanan
(E) None of these
ANS (E)

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

State Bank of India : Clerk Reasoning Model Model Test Paper

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the

last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as 'Y'.

Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.

How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If 'Apple' is called 'Orange', 'Orange' is called 'Peach', 'Peach' is called 'Potato', 'Potato' is called 'Banana', 'Banana' is called 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is called 'Guava',

which of the following grows underground ?

(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the

left in the new arrangement ?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it.

How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?

(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English

alphabets ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code 'na pa ka so' means 'birds fly very high', 'ri so la pa' means 'birds are very beautiful' and 'ti me ka bo' means 'the parrots could fly'. Which of the

following is the code for 'high' in that language ?

(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements

to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows

from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and

Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.

Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.

All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.

Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.

Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.

Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?

(A) 489

(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?

(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the
numbers ?

Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the
second digit of the highest number ?

(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?

(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :

'A – B' means 'A is father of B'
'A + B' means 'A is daughter of B'
'A ÷ B' means 'A is son of B'
'A × B' means 'A is wife of B'

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?

(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression 'P + S – T' ?

(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression 'P + Q × T' how is T related to P ?

(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?

(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression 'P × Q – T' how is T related to P ?

(A) Daughter

(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can't be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to
be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that
combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :

(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN

(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG

(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS

(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL

(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA

(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)