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Tuesday, July 30, 2013

Cricket World Cup 2015: Complete Schedule

The International Cricket Council launched the 2015 Cricket World Cup on Tuesday. The 14-team tournament will be staged in Australia and New Zealand from February 14 to March 29. Below is the full list of fixtures for the event:

Pool A: England, Australia (co-host), Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, New Zealand (co-host), Qualifier 2 (TBD), Qualifier 3 (TBD)

Pool B: South Africa, India, Pakistan, West Indies, Zimbabwe, Qualifier 1 (Ireland), Qualifier 4 (TBD)

Fixtures:  

Saturday 14 February –  Sri Lanka v New Zealand , Hagley Oval, Christchurch (day); England v Australia , Melbourne Cricket Ground (day/night)

Sunday 15 Feb – South Africa v Zimbabwe, Seddon Park, Hamilton (d/n); India v Pakistan, Adelaide Oval (d/n)

Monday 16 Feb – West Indies v Ireland, Saxton Oval, Nelson (d)

Tuesday 17 Feb – New Zealand v Qualifier 3, University Oval, Dunedin (d)

Wednesday 18 Feb – Bangladesh v Qualifier 2, Manuka Oval, Canberra (d/n)

Thursday 19 Feb – Zimbabwe v Qualifier 4, Saxton Oval, Nelson (d)

Friday 20 Feb – England v New Zealand, Wellington Regional Stadium, Wellington (d/n)

Saturday 21 Feb – Pakistan v West Indies, Hagley Oval, Christchurch (d); Australia v Bangladesh, Gabba, Brisbane (d/n)

Sunday 22 Feb – Sri Lanka v Qualifier 2, University Oval, Dunedin (d); South Africa v India, MCG, Melbourne (d/n)

Monday 23 Feb – England v Qualifier 3, Hagley Oval, Christchurch (d)

Tuesday 24 Feb – West Indies v Zimbabwe, Manuka Oval, Canberra (d/n)

Wednesday 25 Feb – Ireland v Qualifier 4, Gabba, Brisbane (d/n)

Thursday 26 Feb – Qualifier 2 v Qualifier 3, University Oval, Dunedin (d); Sri Lanka v Bangladesh, MCG, Melbourne (d/n)

Friday 27 Feb – South Africa v West Indies, SCG, Sydney (d/n)

Saturday 28 Feb – India v Qualifier 4, WACA, Perth (d/n); Australia v New Zealand, Eden Park, Auckland (d/n)

Sunday 1 March – England v Sri Lanka, Wellington Regional Stadium, Wellington (d); Pakistan v Zimbabwe, Gabba, Brisbane (d/n)

Monday 2 March – Rest day

Tuesday 3 March – South Africa v Ireland, Manuka Oval, Canberra (d/n)

Wednesday 4 March – Pakistan v Qualifier 4, McLean Park, Napier (d/n); Australia v Qualifier 2, WACA, Perth (d/n)

Thursday 5 March – Bangladesh v Qualifier 3, Saxton Oval, Nelson (d)

Friday 6 March – India v West Indies, WACA, Perth (d/n)

Saturday 7 March –South Africa v Pakistan, Eden Park, Auckland (d/n); Zimbabwe v Ireland, Bellerive Oval, Hobart (d/n)

Sunday 8 March – New Zealand v Qualifier 2, McLean Park, Napier (d); Australia v Sri Lanka, SCG, Sydney (d/n)

Monday 9 March – England v Bangladesh, Adelaide Oval, Adelaide (d/n)

Tuesday 10 March – India v Ireland, Seddon Park, Hamilton (d/n)

Wednesday 11 March – Sri Lanka v Qualifier 3, Bellerive Oval, Hobart (d/n)

Thursday 12 March – South Africa v Qualifier 4, Wellington Regional Stadium, Wellington (d/n)

Friday 13 March – Bangladesh v New Zealand, Seddon Park, Hamilton (d/n); England v Qualifier 2, SCG, Sydney (d/n)

Saturday 14 March – India v Zimbabwe, Eden Park, Auckland (d/n); Australia v Qualifier 3, Bellerive Oval, Hobart (d/n)

Sunday 15 March – West Indies v Qualifier 4, McLean Park, Napier (d); Pakistan v Ireland, Adelaide Oval, Adelaide (d/n)

Monday 16 March – Rest day

Tuesday 17 March – Rest day

Wednesday 18 March – First quarter-final, SCG, Sydney (d/n)

Thursday 19 March – Reserve day for first quarter-final; Second quarter-final, MCG (d/n)

Friday 20 March – Reserve day for second quarter-final; third quarter-final, Adelaide Oval, Adelaide (d/n)

Saturday 21 March – Reserve day for third quarter-final; fourth quarter-final, Wellington Regional Stadium, Wellington (d/n)

Sunday 22 March – Reserve day for fourth quarter-final Mon 23 Mar – Rest day

Tuesday 24 March – First semi-final, Eden Park, Auckland (d/n)

Wednesday 25 March – Reserve day for first semi-final

Thursday 26 March - Second semi-final, SCG, Sydney (d/n)

Friday 27 March – Reserve day for second semi-final

Saturday 28 March – Rest day

Sunday 29 March – Final, MCG, Melbourne (d/n)

Monday 30 March – Reserve day for final

Quarter-final line-up (If Australia and New Zealand qualify, then they'll play their quarter-finals in their countries. As such, final line-up, venues and dates to be confirmed after group stage matches): A1 v B4 A2 v B3 A3 v B2 A4 v B1  

Semi-finals – If Australia and New Zealand meet in semi-finals, then the side that finished higher in the group stage points table will stage the match.

Sunday, July 21, 2013

Film Gk: Film fare awards 2013 Telugu winners list

Film fare awards 2013 Telugu winners list. Eega tops the list with 5 awards followed by Gabbar Singh which won 3 awards. Samantha won best actress for eega and Pawan Kalyan won best actor for gabbar singh. 

Category Award Winner Movie Name
Best Film Eega Eega
Best Actor (Male)Pawan Kalyan Gabbar Singh
Best Actress (Female) SamanthaEega
Best Director S.S.Rajamouli Eega
Lifetime Acheivement Award Vani Jairam
Lifetime Award Bapu
Best Supporting Actor SudeepEega
Best Supporting Actress Amala Akkineni Life is Beautiful
Best cinematographerChota K Naidu Damarukam
Best Music Devisri PrasadGabbar Singh
Best Playback Singer (Male) V Srinivas (Gannu Lanti) Gabbar Singh
Best Playback Singer (Female) Suchitra (Sir Vastara) Business Man
Best choreographerJani (Dillaku Dillaku) Racha
Best VFX MakutaEega
Best Lyricist Ananta Sreeram(Yedi yedi) Yeto Vellipoindi Manasu

GK on World Geography: Countries by rail transport network size

Rank Country Railway Length (km)
1 India 65,000
2 Russia 128,000
3 China (PRC) 93,000
4 United States 226,427
5 Canada 46,552
6 Australia 38,445
7 Germany 37,679
8 Argentina 35,897
9 South Africa 31,000
10 France 29,901
11 Brazil 29,817
12 Mexico 26,704
13 Italy 24,179
14 Japan 23,474
15 Ukraine 22,300
16 Romania 22,298
17 Poland 19,627
18 United Kingdom 16,321
19 Kazakhstan 15,079
20 Spain 15,064
21 Sweden 12,821
22 Iran 11,106
23 Turkey 10,991
24 Czech Republic 9,487
25 Indonesia 8,529
26 Hungary 7,942
27 Pakistan 7,791
28 Egypt 6,700
29 Finland 5,919
30 Chile 5,898
31 Austria 5,927
32 Belarus 5,491
33 Sudan 5,478
34 North Korea 5,235
35 Cuba 5,076
36 Switzerland 5,063
37 Algeria 4,316
38 Uzbekistan 4,230
39 Bulgaria 4,159
40 New Zealand 4,128
41 Norway 4,114
42 Thailand 4,071
43 Democratic Republic of the Congo 4,007
44 Myanmar (Burma) 3,955
45 Serbia 3,809
46 Slovakia 3,658
47 Nigeria 3,528
48 Belgium 3,513
49 South Korea 3,381
50 Turkmenistan 3,181
51 Vietnam 3,147
52 Mozambique 3,116
53 Zimbabwe 3,000
54 Uruguay 2,993
55 Netherlands 2,896
56 Bolivia 2,866
57 Portugal 2,842
58 Bangladesh 2,835
59 Kenya 2,778
60 Angola 2,761
61 Tanzania 2,722
62 Croatia 2,974
63 Greece 2,552
64 Namibia 2,382
65 Latvia 2,269
66 Tunisia 2,218
67 Syria 2,139
68 Denmark 2,667
69 Azerbaijan 2,918
70 Iraq 2,032
71 Peru 2,020
72 Morocco 1,989
73 Republic of Ireland 1,919
74 Malaysia 1,849
75 Mongolia 1,810
76 Lithuania 1,766
77 Colombia 1,663
78 Taiwan (Republic of China) 1,661
79 Georgia 1,513
80 Sri Lanka 1,508
81 Saudi Arabia 1,412
82 Zambia 1,237
83 Slovenia 1,228
84 Moldova 1,156
85 Bosnia and Herzegovina 1,103
86 Israel 1,001
87 Cameroon 974
88 Ecuador 966
89 Ghana 953
90 Senegal 906
91 Botswana 888
92 Guatemala 885
93 Madagascar 854
94 Armenia 869
95 Guinea 837
96 Estonia 816
97 Gabon 810
98 Malawi 797
99 Republic of the Congo 795
100 Djibouti 781
101 Benin 758
102 Mali 733
103 Mauritania 728
104 Honduras 699
105 Macedonia 699
106 Ethiopia 699
107 Cambodia 650
108 Côte d'Ivoire 639
109 Burkina Faso 622
110 Tajikistan 616
111 Fiji 597
112 Togo 568
113 El Salvador 562
114 Dominican Republic 517
115 Liberia 490
116 Philippines 479
117 Albania 423
118 Kyrgyzstan 417
119 Lebanon 401
120 Panama 355
121 Venezuela 336
122 Eritrea 306
123 Swaziland 301
124 Costa Rica 278
125 Luxembourg 275
126 Jamaica 272
127 Uganda 259
128 Jordan 251
129 Montenegro 249
130 Hong Kong (People's Republic Of China) 210
131 Singapore 199.4
132 Guyana 187
133 Suriname 166
134 Puerto Rico (US) 96
135 Sierra Leone 84
136 Antigua and Barbuda 77
137 Afghanistan 75
138 Nepal 59
139 United Arab Emirates 52
140 Saint Kitts and Nevis 50
141 Haiti 40
142 Paraguay 36
143 Brunei 13
144 Liechtenstein 9
145 Nicaragua 6
146 Nauru 5
147 Western Sahara 5
148 Laos 4
149 Lesotho 3
150 Monaco 1.7
151 Vatican City 0.862
  World 1,370,782

GK on World Geography: List of run-of-the-river hydroelectric power stations

Station Country Capacity (MW)
Asahan 1 Hydroelectric Power Station  Indonesia180
Baglihar Dam  India450
Beauharnois Hydroelectric Power Station  Canada 1,903
Bersimis-2 generating station  Canada869
Birecik Dam  Turkey672
Bonneville Dam  United States1,092
Caojie Hydropower Station  China 500
Carillon Generating Station  Canada 753
Chief Joseph Dam  United States 2,620
Chibro Power Plant  India240
Chilla Power Plant  India 144
Dharasu Power Station  India 304
The Dalles Dam  United States 1,779
Ghazi-Barotha Hydropower Project Pakistan 1,450
Gilgel Gibe II Power Station Ethiopia 420
Jean-Lesage generating station  Canada 1,145
Jinping-II Hydropower Station China 600
Jiulong Pianqiao Hydropower Station  China 228
John Day Dam  United States 2,160
Kettle Generating Station Canada 1,220
Khodri Power Plant  India120
Koteshwar Dam  India200
La Grande-1 generating station  Canada1,436
Lay Dam  United States177
Limestone Generating Station  Canada1,340
Little Goose Dam  United States932
Long Spruce Generating Station  Canada1,010
Lower Granite Dam  United States932
Lower Monumental Dam  United States932
McNary Dam  United States980
Muli Shawan Hydro Power Station  China 240
Nathpa Jhakri Dam  India 1,500
Outardes-2 generating station Canada 523
Outardes-3 generating station  Canada 1,026
Pandoh Dam (Dehar) India 990
Pulangi IV Hydroelectric Power Plant  Philippines 255
Qiaogong Hydropower Station  China 456
Ranganadi Dam  India 405
Rongzehai Hydropower Station  China 240
Tianshengqiao-II Hydropower Station  China 1,320
Santo Antonio Dam  Brazil716
Shuhe Hydropower Station China 270

Intelligence Bureau Recruitment 2013 modal paper practice for paper 1

The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
See Answer:

A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
See Answer:

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
See Answer:

Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment
See Answer:

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b) concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c) rate of respiration is decreased
(d) there is an increase in humidity
See Answer:

Consider the following fauna of India:
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turth
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 5
See Answer:

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a) the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b) most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d) leaves get damaged during transplantation
See Answer:

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a) there is technical progress in the world economy
(b) there is population growth in X
(c) there is capital formation in X
(d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy
See Answer:

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c) Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
See Answer:

The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1. resist drought and increase absorptive area
2. tolerate extremes of pH
3. resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals
(d) money value of final goods and services produced
See Answer:

Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

Intelligence Bureau Recruitment 2013 modal paper on General Awareness

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
See Answer:

2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
See Answer:

3. Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical Feature Region
(a) Abyssinian Plateau: Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains: North Western Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands: : South Western Africa
(d) Okavango Basin: Patagonia
See Answer:

4. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

5. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

6. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only-
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

7. Consider the following:
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
See Answer:

9. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
See Answer:

10. Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
2. Sea-horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

11. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor
See Answer:

12. Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
See Answer:

13. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

14. Variations-in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to
(a) the earth's rotation on its axis
(b) the earth's revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c) latitudinal position of the place
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
See Answer:

15. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

16. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) exists as groundwater
(d) exists as soil moisture
See Answer:

17. Consider the following pairs:
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak)Lake Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

18. Consider the following:
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
See Answer:

19. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

20. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts
See Answer:


21. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any state
See Answer:

22. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above
See Answer:

23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
See Answer:

24. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a) Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c) Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d) None to the above
See Answer:

25. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self- governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
See Answer:


26. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
See Answer:

27. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a) bacteria
(b) protozoa
(c) moulds
(d) viruses
See Answer:

28. 'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
See Answer:

29. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
See Answer:

30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
See Answer:

31. With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

32. Consider the following pairs:
National Park River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

33. Consider the following organisms:
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
See Answer:

34. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1. Excretion of urea by animals
2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

35. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

36. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two
See Answer:

37. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) A state of bliss and rest
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension
See Answer:

38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
See Answer:

39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
See Answer:

40. Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan
See Answer:


41. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of
(a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b) goods exported from a country during a year
(c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d) capital movements from one country to another
See Answer:

42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
(a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
See Answer:

44. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a) economic development
(b) redemption of public debt
(c) adjusting the balance of payments
(d) reducing the foreign debt
See Answer:

45. Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped, both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
See Answer:

46. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

48. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a) Ecotone
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range
See Answer:

49. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyaceryl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of
(c) CO, CO2 and N02 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of N02, 03 and CO in the evening
See Answer:

50. Consider the following minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

51. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

52. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
See Answer:

53. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

54. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d) continental shelf is undulating
See Answer:

55. Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

56. Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
See Answer:

57. Consider the following historical places:
1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

58. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See Answer:

59. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

60. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:


61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

62. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
See Answer:

63. Consider the following statements:
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
See Answer:

64. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

65. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
(a) African Savannah
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Siberian Tundra
See Answer:

66. Consider the following statements:
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See Answer:

67. Disguised unemployment generally means
(a) large number of people remain unemployed
(b) alternative employment is not available
(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d) productivity of workers is low
See Answer:

68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

69. Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:

70. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See Answer:

71. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
See Answer:

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder
See Answer:

73. Consider the following pairs:
Tribe State
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See Answer:

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 4-1-3-2
See Answer:

75. In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d) None of the above
See Answer:

76. Priority Sector Lending by banks in
India constitutes the lending to
(a) agriculture
(b) micro and small enterprises
(c) weaker sections
(d) All of the above
See Answer:

77. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a) Engineering
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
(d) Thermal power
See Answer:

78. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a) Promoting skill development
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) Privatization of higher education
See Answer:

79. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
See Answer:

80. Annie Besant was
1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
3. once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
See Answer:


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