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Sunday, June 20, 2010

UGC Latest Fake Universities List 2010

UGC Latest Fake Universities List 2010
University Grants Commission (UGC) release list of Fake Universities every year for the information of students and parents. UGC is the official body of Government of India to grant permission for Universities.

Univerisites operating without UGC recognition are considered to be unrecognised and their degrees are not valid for postings and jobs recruitment of Govt. bodies and agencies and not eligible to pursue higher degrees. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar tops the list every year more number of fake universities.

Following are state-wise list of fake Universities as on 8th December, 2009...

* Vocational University, Delhi.
* ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi - 110 008.
* Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi.
* Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum, Karnataka.
* Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi.
* United Nations University, Delhi.
* Raja Arabic University, Nagpur, Maharashtra.
* Maithili University/Vishwavidyalaya, Darbhanga, Bihar.
* Varanaseya Sanskrit Vishwavidyalaya, Varanasi (UP) Jagatpuri, Delhi.
* D.D.B. Sanskrit University, Putur, Trichi, Tamil Nadu.
* Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
* Maharana Pratap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh.

* St. John's University, Kishanattam, Kerala.
* Kesarwani Vidyapith, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
* Indian Institute of Alternative Medicine, Kolkatta.
* Gurukul Vishwavidyala, Vridanvan, Uttar Pradesh.
* Mahila Gram Vidyapith/Vishwavidyalaya, (Women's University) Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
* Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
* National University of Electro Complex Homeopathy, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
* Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
* Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area,Khoda,Makanpur,Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh.

Saturday, June 19, 2010

Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper

Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper

General Awareness/Computer Knowledge


1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa

(B) Bihar

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Sikkim

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____

(A) Tokyo

(B) New York

(C) Madrid

(D) Stckholm

(E) Beijing

Ans (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?

(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru

(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas

(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1 , 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /

(A) Jet Airways

(B) Ranbaxy

(C) Bhilai Steel Plant

(D) National Textiles Corporation

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?

(A) 5 %

(B) 6 %

(C) 7 %

(D) 8 %

(E) 9 %

Ans (C)

6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)

(A) London

(B) New York

(C) Tokyo

(D) Beijing

(E) Mumbai

Ans (D)

7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___

(A) Credit Policy

(B) Monetary Policy

(C) KYC Norms

(D) Basel Accord

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___

(A) Repo Rate

(B) Reserve Repo Rate

(C) SLR

(D) Liquidity Ratio

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?

(1) Turmoil in US Credit market

(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains

(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2 only

(E) All 1,2 & 3

Ans (D)

10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?

(A) 5 %

(B) 15 %

(C) 25 %

(D) 30 %

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?

(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon

(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region

(C) It is new battle tank produced by India

(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?

(A) Seeds

(B) Pesticides

(C) Fertilizers

(D) Organic Manure

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___

(A) India

(B) Egypt

(C) Brazil

(D) South Africa

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___

(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir

(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Governor , Jharkhand

(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand

(E) Governor, Manipur

Ans (B)

15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Recession

(C) Deflation

(D) Economic Boom

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?

(A) NATO

(B) SAARC

(C) European Union

(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___

(A) Treasury Bill

(B) Momerandom of Association

(C) Kisan Vikas Patra

(D) National Saving Certificate

(E) Commercial Papers

Ans (E)

18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

(A) Ukraine

(B) Kazakhastan

(C) Croatia

(D) Georgia

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?

(A) Manipur

(B) Assam

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?

(A) Hockey

(B) Football

(C) Lawn Tennis

(D) Swimming

(E) Rifle Shooting

Ans (E)

Quiz Miscellany 1

  Q1. What is the stated benefit of a single polypill containing aspirin, statins and 2 blood pressure-lowering medicines?

Ans. Prevent heart attacks

Q2. SAIL and Tata Steel are in discussion for a JV steel plant .If materialized, this is not going to be their first JV. They already have a 50:50 JV in ecommerce. Name it.

Ans. mjunction

Q3. How can Indo-Pak trade in agriculture benefit the 'Aam' Aadmi ?

Ans. Mangoes (Aam) for six months due to diff seasons on both sides.

Q4. Who said ' 3G is basmati rice, and 2G is PDS rice.'? And why?

Ans.  A Raja alias Spectrum Raja. He sold 2G spectrum for a song in 2008

Q5. What's common to Raghu Pillai, Gunendar Kapoor, Sriram Srinivasan and Rajeev Karwal ?

Ans. High profile executives of Reliance Retail who have all quit

Q6. Germany has banned naked short selling? What is it?

Ans. Selling shares by borrowing is short selling, selling even before borrowing them is naked short sell.

Q7. Warcraft and Second life are the most popular MMORPGs.What are MMORPGs ?

Ans. Massive multiplayer online role playing games

Q8. Bank of Punjab, Centurion Bank, Times Bank have all merged into a bank. Name it.

Ans.  HDFC bank

Q9. What inspired India born Scotsman Shepherd Barron to invent the ATM ?

Ans. A chocolate vending machine

Q10. As Abbott acquires Piramal it will get a brand of cough syrup that sells more for its intoxicating effect. Name it.

Ans.  Phensedyl

Q11. How do we know 'Morris Oxford series III of 1957′ better in India ?

Ans. Ambassador car

Q12. Which Indian biscuit manufacturer was penalized as it had produced a small quantity of sugar used in their biscuits ?

Ans. Parle.

Q13. In global economics what is 'the new normal' ? Who coined it?

Ans. The post 2008 crisis, world economic order after recovery. PIMCO.

Q14.Name the man behind "Sulabh Shauchalaya" who developed the two-pit toilet,an innovation now exported to 50 countries.

Ans. Bindeshwari Pathak

Q15. Which airline, in the news, has the tag line 'Simply Priceless'?

Ans. Air India Express

Q16. What is an IDR? Who is the first issuer of IDR?

Ans. Indian Depository Receipt. Standard Chartered Bank.

Monday, June 14, 2010

Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper -General Awareness/Computer Knowledge

Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper

General Awareness/Computer Knowledge


1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa

(B) Bihar

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Sikkim

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____

(A) Tokyo

(B) New York

(C) Madrid

(D) Stckholm

(E) Beijing

Ans (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?

(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru

(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas

(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1 , 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /

(A) Jet Airways

(B) Ranbaxy

(C) Bhilai Steel Plant

(D) National Textiles Corporation

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?

(A) 5 %

(B) 6 %

(C) 7 %

(D) 8 %

(E) 9 %

Ans (C)

6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)

(A) London

(B) New York

(C) Tokyo

(D) Beijing

(E) Mumbai

Ans (D)

7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___

(A) Credit Policy

(B) Monetary Policy

(C) KYC Norms

(D) Basel Accord

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___

(A) Repo Rate

(B) Reserve Repo Rate

(C) SLR

(D) Liquidity Ratio

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?

(1) Turmoil in US Credit market

(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains

(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2 only

(E) All 1,2 & 3

Ans (D)

10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?

(A) 5 %

(B) 15 %

(C) 25 %

(D) 30 %

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?

(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon

(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region

(C) It is new battle tank produced by India

(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?

(A) Seeds

(B) Pesticides

(C) Fertilizers

(D) Organic Manure

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___

(A) India

(B) Egypt

(C) Brazil

(D) South Africa

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___

(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir

(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Governor , Jharkhand

(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand

(E) Governor, Manipur

Ans (B)

15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Recession

(C) Deflation

(D) Economic Boom

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?

(A) NATO

(B) SAARC

(C) European Union

(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___

(A) Treasury Bill

(B) Momerandom of Association

(C) Kisan Vikas Patra

(D) National Saving Certificate

(E) Commercial Papers

Ans (E)

18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

(A) Ukraine

(B) Kazakhastan

(C) Croatia

(D) Georgia

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?

(A) Manipur

(B) Assam

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?

(A) Hockey

(B) Football

(C) Lawn Tennis

(D) Swimming

(E) Rifle Shooting

Ans (E)

Saturday, June 12, 2010

History of Commonwealth Games

COMMONWEALTH GAMES

After Olympics, Commonwealth Games is the second largest sports festival in the world. The Games are held once in four years but only in between the Olympic years. The Games were originally known as the British Empire Games. The first Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 at Hamilton, Canada. The 10th Commonwealth Games were held at Christchurch, New Zealand in 1974, the 11th in Edmonton (Canada) in 1978, the 12th in Brisbane (Australia) in 1982, the 13th in Edinburgh (Scotland) in 1986, the 14th in Auckland (New Zealand) in 1990 and the 15th in Victoria (Canada) in 1994, where about 3,350 athletes from a record 64 nations (including South Africa, which joined the family of Commonwealth athletes after 36 years) participated. Namibia also, which gained its independence in 1990, made its debut while Hong Kong made its final appearance in the Games before being ceded to China in 1997.



S. No Venue Year No of Countries
1 Hamilton, Canada 1930 11
2 London, United Kingdom 1934 16
3 Sydney, Australia 1938 15
4 Auckland, New Zealand 1950 12
5 Vancouver, Canada 1954 24
6 Cardiff, United Kingdom 1958 35
7 Perth, Australia 1962 35
8 Jamaica, West Indies 1966 34
9 Edinburgh, United Kingdom 1970 42
10 Christchurch, New Zealand 1974 38
11 Edmonton, Canada 1978 48
12 Brisbane, Australia 1982 47
13 Edinburgh, United Kingdom 1986 26
14 Auckland, New Zealand 1990 55
15 Victoria, Canada 1994 64
16 Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia 1998 70
17 Manchchester, United Kingdom 2002 72
18 Melbourne, Australia 2006
19 New Delhi, India 2010

ASIAN GAMES

India played a leading role to organise sports festival for Asian countries on Olympic lines. 'Ever Onward' is the motto of the Asian Games and 'a bright full rising sun with interlocking rings' is its emblem. The first Asian Games were held at New Delhi in 1951 followed by Manila, Philippines (1954); Tokyo, Japan (1958); Jakarta, Indonesia (1962); Bangkok, Thailand (1966, 1970, 1978 & 1998); Teheran, Iran (1974); New Delhi, India (1982); Seoul, South Korea (1986); Beijing, China (1990); Hiroshima, Japan (1994); Bangkok, Thailand (1998); Busan, South Korea (2002); Doha, Qatar (2006). The next editions of the Games is scheduled to be held in and Guangzhou, China (2010).

SAP GAMES

The South Asian Federation Games (SAP Games) is a sport festival of South Asian countries. The South Asian Sports Federation comprising India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and Maldives was formed in New Delhi in November, 1982. The first SAP Games were held in Kathmandu in 1984 followed by Dhaka (1985), Kolkata (1987), Islamabad (1989), Colombo (1991), Dhaka (1993) and Chennai (1995). The Eighth SAF Games (September 25-Octobcr 4, 1999) were held in Kathmandu. Three new events—badminton, rowing and karate were introduced for the first time in the 9th SAP Games.
New Name For SAF Games: The SAP Games have been rechristencd as South Asian Games, according to a decision taken by the South Asian Sports Federation at its 32nd meeting held in Islamabad (Pakistan) on April 2, 2004.


Thursday, June 10, 2010

General Awareness for All Examinations

1.Which among the following agricultural products is India's main
import item?
(A)Pulses
(B)Oil Seeds
(C)Sugar
(D)Edible Oils
(E)Coffee
Answer: Edible Oils
2.Find out the correct location of McMurdo Dry Valleys the hyper
saline water bodies on dry land?
(A)Africa
(B)Central Asia
(C)North America
(D)Europe
(E)Antarctica
Answer: Antarctica
3. Damodar and Sone river valley and Rajmahal hills in the eastern
India are depository of the______?
(A)Cuddappa System Rocks
(B)Dharwar System Rocks
(C)Gondwana System Rocks
(D)Vindhyan System Rocks
(E)None of them
Answer: Gondwana System Rocks
4.In which year the central Industrial Security Force was made an
armed force of the Union of India ?
(A)1969
(B)1972
(C)1982
(D)1983
(E)1990
Answer: 1983
5.Which among the following is the first private company of India to
get protection from the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?
(A)Tata Motors
(B)Reliance Industries
(C)Infosys Technologies
(D)Wipro
(E)None of them
Answer: Infosys Technologies
6.Which among the following is a Public Sector Travel and Tours
Company ?
(A)Travel Corporation of India Ltd
(B)Cox & Kings
(C)Balmer & Lawrie Company Ltd
(D)Thomas Cook India Ltd
(E)None of them
Answer: Balmer & Lawrie Company Ltd
7.From the given options, Find out Most urbanized Country ?
(A)India
(B)Pakistan
(C)Burma
(D)Bhutan
(E)Nepal
Answer: Pakistan
8.The Gulf of Thailand borders Cambodia from which of the following
directions?
(A)North
(B)West
(C)South
(D)East
(E)North West
Answer: South
9.Which of the following African Country is also known sometimes as
Ngwane?
(A)Mozambique
(B)Swaziland
(C)Nigeria
(D)Niger
(E)Botswana
Answer: Swaziland
10.Which among the following Island countries is the only country in
the world to be a member of African Union, Francophonie, Organization
of the Islamic Conference, Arab League and Indian Ocean Commission ?
(A)Comoros
(B)Mauritius
(C)Bahrain
(D)Indonesia
(E)Madagascar
Answer: Comoros
11.Which among the following is not a Landlocked Country?
(A)Austria
(B)Hungary
(C)Paraguay
(D)Zimbabwe
(E)Mozambique
Answer: Mozambique
12.Which of the following organ in human body produces albumin, one of
the major components of blood serum?
(A)Bone Marrow
(B)Liver
(C)Pancreas
(D)Spleen
(E)None of them
Answer: Liver
13.Which among the following is the main constituent of vegetable oil
and animal fats?
(A)Glycogen
(B)Triglyceride
(C)Galactose
(D)Diglyceride
(E)Cholesterol
Answer: Triglyceride
14.Which of the following part of the body stores Vitamin A, Vitamin D
as well as Vitamin B12?
(A)Brain
(B)Liver
(C)Pancreas
(D)Red Blood Cells
(E)Small Intestine
Answer: Liver
15.What was the nationality of Mahbub ul Haq, one of the pioneers of
Human development theory and founder of the Human Development Report
(Other is Amartya Sen)?
(A)UK
(B)USA
(C)Pakistan
(D)Saudi Arabia
(E)Canada
Answer: Pakistan
16.Which of the following country was annexed into the Greater Germany
by Nazi regime through <b>Anschluss</b>?
(A)Austria
(B)Poland
(C)Italy
(D)Liechtenstein
(E)None of them
Answer: Austria
17.What is RuBisCO?
(A)A Sugar
(B)An Enzyme
(C)A Fat
(D)A Carbohydrate
(E)None of them
Answer: An Enzyme, Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
first enzyme of Calvin Cycle of Carbon Fixation
18.The Red color of Red wine is mainly because of _____?
(A)Chemicals in Wine
(B)Pigments
(C)Color blended
(D)Ageing
(E)None of them
Answer: Pigments
19.The story of Alibaba & 40 thieves is related to which of the
following Caliphate era?
(A)Fatimid Caliphate
(B)Umayyad Caliphate
(C)Abbasid Caliphate
(D)Rashidun Caliphate
(E)None of them
Answer: Abbasid Caliphate
20.In the Indian mythology, who sung Shiva Tandava Stotra?
(A)Ravana
(B)Rama
(C)Kuber
(D)Vibhishana
(E)Indra
Answer: Ravana

Abbreviations associated with Computer

Here are some important abbreviations associated with Computer and web technology. These terms are very basic and general known by many peoples, but aim of sharing here to spread with unaware people.

CDAC : Centre for Development of Advanced Parallel Computing.
C-DOT : Center for Development of Telematrics.
HTTP : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
ROM : Read Only Memory
RAM : Random Access Memory
BIOS : Basic Input- Output System.
MODEM : Modulation – Demodulation.
CAD : Computer Aided Design.
PSTN : Public Switched Public Data Network.
PSPDN : Pocket Switched Public.
RABAN : Remote Area Business Message Network.
LAN : Local Area Network
WAN : Wide Area Network .
MAN : Metropolitan Area Network.
CDMA : Code Division Multiple Access.
GAIS : Gateway Internet Access Service
E-Mail : Electronic Mail.
CD : Compact Disc.
LDU : Liquid Display Unit.
CPU : Central Processing Unit.
CAM : Computer Aided Manufacturing.
CATScan : Computerized Axial Tomography Scan .
COBOL : Common Business Oriented Language.
COMAL : Common Algorithmic Language.
DOS : Disk Operating System.
DTS : Desk Top System
DTP : Desk Top Publishing.
E-Commerce : Electronic Commerce.
ENIAC : Electronic Numerical Integrator And Calculator
FAX : Far Away Xerox.
FLOPS : Floating Operations Per Second.
FORTRAN : Formula Translation.
HLL : High Level Language.
HTML : Hyper Text Markup Language.
IBM : International Business Machine.
IC : Integrated Circuit
ISH : International Super Highway.
LISP : List Processing.
LLL : Low Level Language
MICR : Magnetic Ink Character Recognizer.
MIPS : Millions of Instructions Per Second.
MOPS : Millions of Operations Per Second.
MPU : Micro Processor Unit.
NICNET : National Information Center Network.
OMR : Optical Mark Reader.
PC-DOT : Personal Computer Disk Operation System.
PROM : Programmable Read Only Memory.
SNOBOL : String Oriented Symbolic Language.
UPS : Uninterpretable Power Supply.
VDU : Visual Display Unit.
VLSI : Very Large Scale Integrated.
WWW : World Wide Web.

Great and Amazing Wonders of the World

Wow! there are great wonders in the world. Yes, these are amazing therefore became famous and popular. Here are the name of the wonders of the world.

7 Wonders of Ancient World 7 Wonders of Medieval World
Hanging Garden of Babylon Colosseum of Rome
Temple of Diana al Elephant (Rome) Great wall of China
Statue of Jupiter at Olympia Porcelain Tower of Nanking (China)
Mausoleum of Mausolus (Ruler of Halicarnassus) Stone henge of England
Pyramids of Egypt Mosque at St. Sophia (Constantinople)
Light House at Alexandria Catacombs of Alexandria
Colossus of Rhodes Leaning Tower of Pisa Taj Mahal (India)
Hanging Garden of Babylon: The Hanging Gardens of Babylon (also known as the Hanging Gardens of Semiramis) (near present-day Al Hillah in Iraq, formerly Babylon) are considered one of the original Seven Wonders of the World. They were built by Nebuchadnezzar II around 600 BC. He is reported to have constructed the gardens to please his wife, Amytis of Media, who longed for the trees and fragrant plants of her homeland.
The gardens were destroyed by several earthquakes after the 2nd century BC. The Hanging Gardens probably did not really "hang" in the sense of being suspended from cables or ropes. The name comes from an inexact translation of the Greek word kremastos or the Latin word pensilis, which mean not just "hanging", but "overhanging" as in the case of a terrace or balcony.
Statue of Jupiter at Olympia: In ancient Greece, however, it was staged in honour the king of the gods, Zeus (called Jupiter by the Romans). A special temple, the Olympieium, was built at Olympia. It was the home of a huge statue of Zeus. Ancient writers commented that the temple was too small for the statue, or the statue was too large for the temple. Either way, poor old Zeus looked a bit cramped. The base of the statue was approximately 6.5 metres by 10 metres. It was probably over a metre high.The statue was 13 metres high — that's about the height of a three-storey house in modern times. The statue was not made of stone. It was made of gold and ivory. Wow! Imagine how magnificent it must have looked. It would have cost a lot, too. The temple and statue were built around 460 BC. The statue was destroyed by the Romans in about 40 AD.
Mausoleum of Mausolus (Ruler of Halicarnassus): The Tomb of Mausolus, Mausoleum of Mausolus or Mausoleum at Halicarnassus was a tomb built between 353 and 350 BC at Halicarnassus (present Bodrum, Turkey) for Mausolus, a satrap in the Persian Empire, and Artemisia II of Caria, his wife and sister. The structure was designed by the Greek architects Satyrus and Pythius. It stood approximately 45 metres (135 ft) in height, and each of the four sides was adorned with sculptural reliefs created by each one of four Greek sculptors — Leochares, Bryaxis, Scopas of Paros and Timotheus. The finished structure was considered to be such an aesthetic triumph that Antipater of Sidon identified it as one of his Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. In 377 B.C., the city of Halicarnassus was the capitol of a small kingdom along the Mediterranean coast of Asia Minor. It was in that year the ruler of this land, Hecatomnus of Mylasa, died and left control of the kingdom to his son, Mausolus. Hecatomnus, a local satrap to the Persians, had been ambitious and had taken control of several of the neighbouring cities and districts. Mausolus in his time, extended the territory even further so that it finally included most of southwestern Asia Minor.
Pyramids of Egypt : The Egyptian pyramids are pyramid shaped structures located in Egypt. There are over 100 Egyptian pyramids, most of which were built during the Old and Middle Kingdom periods. The first Egyptian pyramid was the Pyramid of Djozer which was built during the third dynasty under King Djozer. The pyramid was designed by Imhotep as a tomb for the King. The best known egyptian pyramids are the Giza pyramids which are recognized among the largest structures ever built and are the only remaining monuments of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. During Egypt's Old Kingdom (time line), the pharaohs established a stable central government in the fertile Nile Valley. Perhaps the greatest testaments to their power were the pyramids and other tombs built to shelter them in the afterlife.
Light House at Alexandria : The lighthouse of Alexandria was a tower built in the 3rd century BC (between 285 and 247 BC) on the island of Pharos in Alexandria, Egypt to serve as that port's landmark, and later, its lighthouse. The lighthouse's designer was Sostrates of Knidos. The Lighthouse of Alexandria is one of the greatest architectural feats of antiquity. It was at least as tall as a 40 story modern building and stood for over 16 centuries. Proud of his work, Sostrates, desired to have his name carved into the foundation. Ptolemy II, the son who ruled Egypt after his father, refused this request wanting his own name to be the only one on the building.
Colossus of Rhodes: The Colossus of Rhodes was a statue of the Greek god Helios, erected on the Greek island of Rhodes by Chares of Lindos between 292 and 280 BC. It is considered one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World. Before its destruction, the Colossus of Rhodes stood over 30 meters (107 ft) high, making it one of the tallest statues of the ancient world. It was roughly the same size as the Statue of Liberty in New York, although it stood on a lower platform. It was one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World.
Colosseum of Rome: The Colosseum or Coliseum, originally the Flavian Amphitheatre is an elliptical amphitheatre in the centre of the city of Rome, Italy, the largest ever built in the Roman Empire. It is one of the greatest works of Roman architecture and Roman engineering. The Colosseum was designed to hold 50,000 spectators, and it had approximately eighty entrances so crowds could arrive and leave easily and quickly. The plan is a vast ellipse, measuring externally 188 m x 156 m (615 ft x 510 ft), with the base of the building covering about 6 acres. Vaults span between eighty radial walls to support tiers of seating and for passageways and stairs. The facade of three tiers of arches and an attic story is about 48.5 m (158 ft) tall — roughly equivalent to a 12-15 story building.
Great Wall of China: The Great Wall of China is a series of stone and earthen fortifications in China, built, rebuilt, and maintained between the 5th century BC and the 16th century to protect the northern borders of the Chinese Empire during the rule of successive dynasties. Several walls, referred to as the Great Wall of China, were built since the 5th century BC. The most famous is the wall built between 220 BC and 200 BC by the first Emperor of China, Qin Shi Huang; little of it remains; it was much farther north than the current wall, which was built during the Ming Dynasty. The Great Wall is the world's longest human-made structure, stretching over approximately 6,400 km (4,000 miles) from Shanhaiguan in the east to Lop Nur in the west, along an arc that roughly delineates the southern edge of Inner Mongolia, but stretches to over 6,700 km (4,160 miles) in total. It is also the largest human-made structure ever built in terms of surface area and mass. At its peak the Ming Wall was guarded by more than one million men. It has been estimated that somewhere in the range of 2 to 3 million Chinese died as part of the centuries-long project of building the wall.
Taj Mahal of India - "the epitome of love", "a monument of immeasurable beauty". The beauty of this magnificent monument is such that it is beyond the scope of words. The thoughts that come into the mind while watching the Taj Mahal of Agra is not just its phenomenal beauty, but the immense love which was the reason behind its construction. Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan got this monument constructed in the memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal, with whom he fell in love at the first sight. The very first sight of the Taj Mahal, the epitome of love and romance leaves one mesmerized. Taj Mahal stands on the bank of River Yamuna, which otherwise serves as a wide moat defending the Great Red Fort of Agra, the center of the Mughal emperors until they moved their capital to Delhi in 1637. It was built by the fifth Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan in 1631 in memory of his second wife, Mumtaz Mahal, a Muslim Persian princess. She died while accompanying her husband in Burhanpur in a campaign to crush a rebellion after giving birth to their 14th child.

Other Seven Wonders of the World:
  1. The Sphinx, near Gizeh (Ghiza) in Egypt
  2. The Catacombs at Rome
  3. The Circus Maximus at Rome
  4. The Taj Mahal at Agra (India)
  5. Angkor vat temple in combodia
  6. The Alhambra at Granada in S.Spain
  7. Shew Dragon Pagoda or the Golden Pagoda at Yangon in Myanmar

New Seven Wonder of the World:
(as declared on July 7, 2007 by New Seven Wonders foundation of Switzerland,
At a grand ceremony organised in 'Stadia da Lutz' Benefica stadium in Lisban (Portugal)
  1. The Taj Mahal (Agra, India)
  2. The Great Wall of China (China)
  3. The Pink Ruins of Petra (Jordan)
  4. The Statue of Christ the Redeemer in Ris de Janerio (Brazil)
  5. Incan Ruins of Machu Pichu  (Peru)
  6. The ancient Mayan City of Chichen ltza (Mexico)
  7. The Colosseum of Rome (Italy)

Computer General Awareness

Computer General Awareness

1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
ANS (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
ANS ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
ANS ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
ANS (c)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
ANS ()
32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these
ANS ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
40. Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
ANS ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
46. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

Tuesday, June 8, 2010

Top 50 Government Engineering Colleges in India | IITs, NITs , University Engineering Colleges

Top 50 Government Engineering Colleges in India | IITs, NITs , University Engineering Colleges

These are top - 50 Engineering colleges in India. IITs have always been on top of the lists. Along with NITs, famous after IITs, some famous Government Engineering coleges also placed in this list. These rankings are given by The Hindustan Times news paper...

Following is the List of top-50 engineering colleges in India...



IITs..

1 IIT Bombay, Mumbai
2 IIT Kanpur
3 IIT Delhi
4 IIT Kharagpur, Kharagpur
5 IIT Madras
6 IIT Guwahati, Guwahati
7 IIT Roorkee

Other Institutes...

8 IT BHU, Varanasi
9 College of Engineering - Anna University, Guindy
10 Jadavpur University, Faculty of Engineering & Technology, Kolkata
11 Mumbai University Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai
12 NIT Trichy, Trichy
13 Indian School of Mines University, Dhanbad
14 Delhi College of Engineering, New Delhi
15 NIT Warangal, Warangal
16 Punjab Engineering College, Chandigarh
17 NIT Surathkal, Surathkal
18 NIT Calicut, Kozhikode
19 Netaji Subhash Institute of Technology, New Delhi
20 Bengal Engineering and Science University – Shibpur, Howrah
21 IIT Allahabad, Allahabad
22 Motilal Nehru National Institute of Technology, Allahabad
23 Malviya National Institute of Technology, Jaipur
24 NIT Kurukshetra, Kurukshetra
25 NIT Rourkela, Rourkela
26 College of Engineering, Thiruvanthapuram
27 Model Engineering College, Thrikkakara
28 College of Engineering, Pune
29 VNIT Nagpur, Nagpur
30 MANIT Bhopal, Bhopal
31 Harcourt Butler Technological Institute, Kanpur
32 Laxmi Narayan Institute of Technology, Nagpur
33 SVNIT Surat, Surat
34 MIT Anna University, Chennai
35 JNTU Hyderabad, Hyderabad
36 NIT Durgapur, Durgapur
37 College of Engineering - Andhra University – Waltair, Visakhapatnam
38 Alagappa Institute of Technology, Karaikudi
39 Govt. College of Engineering, Coimbatore
40 NIT Jalandhar, Jalandhar
41 Shri G S Institute of Technology & Science, Indore
42 NIT, Hamirpur
43 NIT, Jamshedpur
44 Osmania University College of Engineering, Hyderabad
45 JNTU, Kakinada
46 University College of Engineering, Burla
47 S V University Engineering College, Tirupati
48 Institute of Engineering and Technology, Lucknow
49 NIT, Raipur
50 Government Engineering College, Thrissur

Source: The Hindustan Times daily Rankings

Top 25 Engineering Colleges in India

Top 25 Engineering Colleges in India

Following are the top -25 Engineering colleges in India. Along with world famous IITs some NITs and reputed private colleges also there in this list. These rankings have been given by India Today news magazine.

1 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Delhi
2 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kharagpur
3 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Kanpur
4 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras
5 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Bombay
6 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Roorkee
7 - Birla Institute of Technology and Sciences (BITS), Pilani
8 - Institute of Technology, Banaras Hindu University (BHU), Varanasi
9 - Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Guwahati
10 - Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT), Vellore
11- National Institute of Technology, Surathkal

12- College of Engineering, Anna University, Chennai
13- National Institute of Technology, Warangal
14- PSG College of Technology, Coimbatore
15- Delhi College of Engineering, Delhi
16 -International Institute of Information Technology (IIIT), Hyderabad
17- National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirapalli
18- Netaji Subhash Institute of Technology, Delhi
19- Motilal Nehru Institute of Technology, Allahabad
20- National Institute of Technology, Calicut
21- National Institute of Technology, Rourkela
22- College of Engineering, Pune
23- Birla Institute of Technology, Mesra (BIT), Ranchi
24- R.V. College of Engineering, Bangalore
25- Nirma Institute of Technology, Ahmedabad

Thursday, June 3, 2010

Dada Saheb Phalke Awards

Dada Saheb Phalke Award

The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is an annual award given by the Indian government for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema. It was instituted in 1969, the birth centenary year of Dadasaheb Phalke, considered the father of Indian cinema. The award for a particular year is given during the end of the following year along with the National Film Awards.
The Bombay High Court had directed the Directorate of Film Festivals of India (DFFI) to consider uncensored films for the competition, a case which DFFI contested and won in the Supreme Court in late 2006. The case had delayed announcement of the award for 2006, which was announced in the middle of 2008. The 2007 award which had to be announced at the end of 2008 was announced in September 2009.
Renowned playback singer Manna Dey has been nominated for the prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke award for the year 2007.
First Awardee was Devika Rani (1969).
Recipient Contribution AS Year
Manna Dey Singer 2007
Tapan Sinha Director 2006
Shyam Benegal Director 2005
 Adoor Gopalakrishnan Director 2004
 Mrinal Sen Director 2003
 Dev Anand Actor, Director, Producer 2002
Yash Chopra Director, Producer 2001
Asha Bhosle Singer 2000
 Hrishikesh Mukherjee Director 1999
 B.R. Chopra Director, Producer 1998
 Pradeep Lyricist, Poet 1997
 Sivaji Ganesan Actor 1996
 Dr. Raj Kumar Actor, Singer, Producer 1995
Dilip Kumar Actor 1994
 Majrooh Sultanpuri Lyricist 1993
 Bhupen Hazarika Composer, Singer, Producer 1992
 Bhalji Pendharkar Producer, Director 1991
 A. Nageshwar Rao Actor 1990
Lata Mangeshkar Singer, Producer 1989
 Ashok Kumar Actor, Singer 1988
Raj Kapoor Actor, Director 1987
 B. Nagi Reddi Producer 1986
 V.Shantaram Director, producer, actor 1985
Satyajit Ray Director, Producer 1984
 Durga Khote Actress 1983
 L.V. Prasad Actor, Director, Producer 1982
 Naushad Composer 1981
 Jairaj Actor, Director, Producer 1980
 Sohrab Modi Actor, Director, Producer 1979
 R.C. Boral Composer 1978
 Nitin Bose Cinematographer, Director,  Producer 1977
 Kanan Devi Actress, Singer, Producer 1976
 Dhiren Ganguly Actor, Director, Producer 1975
 B.N. Reddi Director, Producer 1974
 Sulochana Actress 1973
 Pankaj Mallick Singer, Actor, Composer 1972
 Prithviarj Kapoor Actor, Director, Producer 1971
 B.N. Sircar Producer 1970
 Devika Rani Actress 1969

some General Awareness questions

1. In the absence of both the President and the Vice-President, who
shall act as the President of India?
(a)Prime Minister
(b)Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c)Chief Justice of India
(d)Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
ANS (c)

2. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
(a) Robert
(b)Proudhon Pierre Joseph
(c)Karl Marx
(d)Saint Simon Henri Claude
ANS (c)

3. During the Mughal period, which one of the following trades were
the first to come to India?
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) Danish
(d) English
ANS (a)

4. Among the following States, which one sends the highest number of
members to the Lok Sabha?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
ANS (ca)

5. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
1. A member of the Lok Sabha cannot be arrested by the police under
any case when the Parliament is in session.
2. Members of the Indian Parliament have the privilege of exemption
from attendance as witnesses in the law courts.
Which of these statement is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
ANS (b)

6. Who among the following was appointed by Ashoka to administer
justice in his empire?
(a) Shramana
(b) Uparika
(c) Rajuka
(d) Kumaramaya
ANS (c)

7. Consider the following statement :
1. Jainism in ancient India condemned the varna system.
2. Jain religious literature was written in Ardhamgadhi.
3. Mahavira admitted women into the order of his follows.
Which if these statement is/are correct ?
(a) G. G. Agarkar
(b) M. G. Ranade
(c) R. G. Bhandarkar
(d) G. H. Deshmukh
ANS (b)

8. Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini, commonly
regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
(a) Banbhatta
(b) Ravikirti
(c) Pushpananda
(d) Kalhana
ANS (d)

9. Who among the following was the first economist to hold the office
of Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs in the Union Finance
Ministry?
(a) Dr. I.G. Patel
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Rakesh Mohan
(d) Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia
ANS (a)

10.What does the abbreviation ATR stand for?
(a) Action Taken Result
(b) Actually True Report
(c) Action Taken Report
(d) Action Taken Rejoinder
ANS (c)

11. Which of the following cities will host 2012 Olympics Games?
(a) Paris
(b) New York
(c) London
(d) Madrid
ANS (c)

12. Why among the following was the founder of the Nyay Darshan, on of
the six, major schools of ancient Indian philosophy?
(a) Patanjali
(b) Panini
(c) Kapil
(d) Gautam
ANS (d)

13. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing
network called "e-chaupal"?
(a) ITC
(b)Dabur
(c) Hindustan Lever
(d) Procter & Gamble
ANS (a)

14. Th e decision to from the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj)
was taken at :
(a) Rangoon
(b) Bangkok
(c) Kuala Lumpur
(d) Tokyo
ANS (d)

15. Th e decision to from the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj)
was taken at :
(a) Rangoon
(b) Bangkok
(c) Kuala Lumpur
(d) Tokyo
ANS (d)

16. Give the correct chronological sequence of the following :
1. Russian Revolution
2. American War of Independence
3. Spanish Revolution
4. The French Revolution
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 2 3 1
ANS (b)

17. Which of the following States has the highest female literacy
rate, according to 2001 Census?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Meghalaya
ANS (b)

18. Who among the following has been choosen the FDI Personality of
the Year 2007 in Asia?
(a) P. Chidambaram
(b) Kamal Nath
(c) Ratish Nayaar
(d) Kaushik Rai
ANS (b)

19. At which of the following places India's fist Net Route Server has
been set up?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Noida
(c) Chennai
(d) Hyderabad
ANS (c)

20. Which of the following Fortune 500 Indian companies has suffered
loss for the first time in the first quarter of 2005-06? (a) Indian
Oil Corporation
(b) ONGC
(c) Reliance Industries
(d) Bharat Petroleum Corporation
ANS (a)

21. Answers Correct Answer User Answer
(a) V.K. Duggal
(b) Jairam Ramesh
(c) Dr. I.G. Patel
(d) Jagmohan
ANS (d)

22. Which one of the following is not a land-locked country?
(a) Afghanistan
(b ) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Thailand
ANS (d)

23. Who invented polio vaccine (oral)?
(a) Albert Sabin
(b) Burkholder
(c) Luise Pasture
(d) Jonas Salk
ANS (a)

24. Which one of the following processes is not related with chemical
weathering?
(a) Exfoliation
(b) Carbonation
(c) Hydration
(d) Oxidation
ANS (a)

25. Mist is caused by :
(a) Dry ice
(b) Ice at low temperature
(c) Water vapours at low temperature
(d) Carbon-monoxide in solid form
ANS (c)

R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009 : Solved Paper

R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009 : Solved Paper


1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?
(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)

9. Who is the author of 'Adhe-Adhure' ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included
fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)

11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)

13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)

15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)

17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in
organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :

18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)

20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)

21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in
meaning to the words in question :

22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)

23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)

24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)

25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)

26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling
point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online
admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the
long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges
and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)

29. The product 'Fair and Lovely' is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)

30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical
colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may
decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or
government's, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address
his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)

33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The 'Ocean of Storms' is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)

36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in
the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)

37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara
School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)

40. 'Thinkpad' is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)

43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted
at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)

44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between
them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given
set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)

Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following number series ?

47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)

48. If 'VEHEMENT' is written as 'VEHETNEM' then in that code how will
you code 'MOURNFUL' ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama;
Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama
is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the
right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the
left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)

52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)

53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English
alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the
next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter
will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of
which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be
when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words
to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same
relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four
alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)

56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)

57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)

59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place
of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)

62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number
of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter
of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How
many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)

68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)

69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half
rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and
one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find
the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)

71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp
posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp
posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if
1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)

73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the
remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every
day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent
he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of
days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite
in meaning to the word ?

75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)

76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)

77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)

78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the
numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged
in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)

79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the
following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)

81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460.
What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)

82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59%
of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of
B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then,
what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)

84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of
the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)

85. But for the Surgeon's skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)

86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)

87. I wasn't really listening and didn't ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)

88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)

90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)

91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the
following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)

Introduction about Civil Service Exam

Who can apply
·       The candidate should hold a University Degree or equivalent qualification.
·       Final year degree students may apply for selection, provided they can produce proof of passing the requisite qualifying examination by July / August, along with their application for the Main Examination.
·       Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications like AMIE (India) which are recognised by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree for purposes of employment would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
Age :
·       Candidates should be 21 – 30 years of age on 1 {+s} {+t} August of the year of the examination. The upper age will be relaxed in the case of eligible candidates, such as SC, ST, OBC, Defence Services personnel disabled in operations, and physically challenged, in accordance with the prescribed norms.
Physical Fitness:
·       Candidates must be physically fit according to the prescribed standards for admission to Civil Services Examination.
No of Attempt :
·       Normally a candidate will be permitted a maximum of four attempts. OBC and physically challenged candidates may make seven attempts. SC / ST candidates may take any number of attempts, provided they are otherwise eligible in conformity with the restrictions on age. Attempting even one paper of the Preliminary Examination will be deemed to be an attempt in the Examination.
What are the Services?
·       The UPSC notification for the Civil Services Examination  offers selection to the 24 services noted below.
o      Indian Administrative Service.
o      Indian Foreign Service.
o      Indian Police Service.
o      Indian P & T Accounts & Finance Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Revenue Service (Customs and Central Excise) Group ‘A'
o      Indian Defence Accounts Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Revenue Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Ordnance Factories Service, Group ‘A' (Assistant Works Manager, Administration)
o      Indian Postal Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Civil Accounts Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Railway Traffic Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Railway Accounts Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Railway Personnel Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Post of Assistant Security Officer, Group ‘A' in Railway Protection Force.
o      Indian Defence Estates Service, Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Information Service (Junior Grade), Group ‘A'.
o      Indian Trade Service, Group ‘A' (GR.III)
o      Indian Corporate Law Service, Group ‘A'
o      Armed Forces Headquarters Civil Service, Group ‘B' (Section Officer's Grade)
o      Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Civil Service, Group ‘B'.
o      Delhi, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli Police Service, Group ‘B'.
o      Pondicherry Civil Service, Group ‘B'
o      Pondicherry Police Service, Group ‘B'
There may be slight changes in the number of services from year to year. The number of vacancies would also differ.
The examinations will be held in 45 centres distributed in various parts of the country.

The Civil Services examination comprises two successive stages:
v       Preliminary examination with objective questions
v       Main examination with nine descriptive written papers.
v       An interview or personality test is also considered as part of the main examination. For the sake of convenience in discussion, we will divide the whole process into three parts— preliminary, main, and interview.
The prelims
v       The objective of this test is to select candidates for the main examination.
v       The preliminary examination is only a screening test, in the sense that the marks scored in this will not be counted for the final ranking.
v       However, you should not forget that if you fail in this, you cannot appear in the main examination.
v       The duration of each question paper is two hours.
v       The questions match the standard of a university degree.
v       They are set in English and Hindi.
v       The detailed syllabus of the examination will be given as part of the notification.
v       All the questions will be of the multiple-choice objective type.
v       There will be penalty in the form of negative marks for wrong answers.
v       No question will demand a descriptive answer.
v       There are two papers—general studies (150 marks) and one optional subject (300 marks)
The candidate has the option to choose this from the 23 subjects that include agriculture, animal husbandry and veterinary science, botany, chemistry, civil engineering, commerce, economics, electrical engineering, geography, geology, Indian history, law, mathematics, mechanical engineering, medical science, philosophy, physics, political science, psychology, public administration, sociology, statistics and zoology. The eligibility gained for appearing in the main examination is valid only for the concerned year; it cannot be carried forward to another year in the future.
Main examination
v       The written examination consists of nine papers, each of three hours.
v       All the questions are of the conventional essay type.
v       The question papers other than language papers will be set both in English and Hindi.
Paper I is Indian language.
You can select it from the languages included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The questions will be of Matriculation standards. The marks scored will not be counted for ranking.
Paper II: English.
The questions will be of Matriculation standards. The marks scored will not be counted for ranking
Paper III: Essay (200 marks)
Papers IV and V: General Studies (300 x 2 = 600 marks)
Papers V, VII, VIII, & IX: two subjects (two papers each, 300 x 4 = 1,200 marks)
Total marks of seven papers= 2,000 marks
Interview (personality test)= 300 marks
Grand total marks for ranking = 2300 marks

Optional subjects
Optional subjects for the main examination can be chosen from 25 subjects, and the literature of one of the 30 specified languages. The subjects you choose need not be from what you have studied in the college. The subjects include agriculture,
animal husbandry and veterinary science, anthropology, botany, chemistry, civil engineering, commerce and accountancy, economics, electrical engineering, geography, geology, history, law management, mathematics, mechanical engineering, medical science, philosophy, physics, political science and international relations, psychology and public administration, sociology, statistics and zoology.
Literature of one of the following languages: Arabic, Assamese, Bodo, Bengali, Dogri, Chinese, English, French, German, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Pali, Persian, Punjabi, Russian, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
The following combinations of subjects will not be allowed, since there are areas of overlap in the syllabi.
Public administration and political science and international relations
Commerce and accountancy and management
Anthropology and sociology
Mathematics and statistics
Agriculture and animal husbandry and veterinary science
Management and public administration
Medical science and animal husbandry and veterinary science
Of the Engineering subjects, viz., civil engineering, electrical engineering and mechanical engineering–not more than one subject.
You can answer the questions in papers III to IX in English or in any language listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. While doing so, you may give the English version of technical terms within brackets. But, if you misuse this rule, a deduction will be made from your total marks. The first two papers, Indian Language and English, should however be answered in the respective languages. In the question papers, SI units will be used, wherever required.
Marks will not be allotted for mere superficial knowledge. Credit will be given for orderly, effective, and exact expression combined with due economy of words in all subjects of the examination. UPSC may fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination. If your handwriting is not legible, a deduction may be made from your total marks.
You will be allowed the use of scientific (non-programmable type) calculators in the essay type examinations. You cannot interchange calculators with other candidates in the examination hall. Calculators are not allowed for the preliminary examination. Please note that these regulations give a hint on the style of preparation you make for the examination.
The interview
This part carries 300 marks making the total significant marks of the main examination 2,300, for determining the final merit and ranking.
Timing
The CSE generally follows the following schedule:
Notification inviting applications: December
Preliminary examination: May
Results of preliminary examination: July/ August
Main examination: October/ November
Interview/ personality test: April/ May
Usually there would be around three lakh applicants at the initial stage. But in 2009, there was a sudden jump to 4.09 lakh from 3.25 lakh in 2008. Nearly half the applicants would actually appear for the preliminary examination. The number of serious candidates may be over a half of those who appear. Still, the competition is tough. The number of candidates to be admitted to the main examination will be about 12-13 times the total number of vacancies in the various services. The number of candidates to be summoned for the interview will be around twice the number of vacancies. Approximately 965 vacancies would be filled from the rank list of the 2010 examination.
The number of applicants gives a strong indication of the great interest shown by our youngsters in joining the civil services, in spite of more lucrative job opportunities in the private sector, especially in the domain of information technology. Graduates and postgraduates who have come out with flying colours from centres of excellence in engineering and management are in the fray. A casual approach based on the presumption that our intelligence will easily carry us above the civil service exam hurdle may not prove to be true.






















CSE reforms
Reforms of the Civil Service Examination have been on the anvil for quite a few years. A proposal for replacing the existing preliminary examination by a Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) would be implemented from next year. The Minister of State in the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions Prithviraj Chavan had mentioned this in a written reply to a question in Lok Sabha, in March 2010. In CSAT there would be two objective-type papers having special emphasis on ‘aptitude for civil services' as well as on ‘ethical and moral dimension of decision-making.'
These would substitute the general awareness and optional subject papers.
However, no formal announcement has so far come from the UPSC with regard to the change in the structure of the preliminary examination, or the content and style of CSAT.
Candidates who make advance preparation may therefore have to do so in tune with the existing pattern.


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