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Sunday, July 31, 2011

Key for Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) 2011

Key for Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) 2011

Paper I (for classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination: one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content (All Compulsory)
(i) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 MCQs 30 Marks
(ii) Language I 30 " 30 "
(iii) Language II 30 " 30 "
(iv) Mathematics 30 " 30 "
(v) Environmental Studies 30 " 30 "

Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination : one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content
(i) Child Development & Pedagogy (compulsory) 30 MCQs 30 Marks
(ii) Language I (compulsory) 30 " 30 "
(iii) Language II (compulsory) 30 " 30 "
(iv) (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher : Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs
of 1 mark each
(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies - 60 MCQs of 1 mark each
(c) for any other teacher – either 4(a) or 4(b)

share yours thoughts and ideas about this exams
.. here

Syllabus Of Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

Syllabus Of Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

Having a BEd degree will no longer be enough to become a school
teacher. Aspirants will now have to clear an eligibility test with at
least 60% to be able to teach at any private orgovernment school.

The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) will be conducted once a year,
separately by the state governments and the Centre. If a state decides
not to conduct the test, schools in that state or union territory will
take into account the test conducted by the central government.
Validity of the qualifying certificate will be decided by the state
government, union territory or Centre, subject to the condition that
it cannot be more than seven years. There is no bar on the number of
attempts by an aspiring teacher for obtaining a TET certificate.
Moreover, an aspirant can appear a second time to improve the score.

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) will maintain the
database, and be the repository of experts and resources that will be
shared with state governments and UTs. Considering the massive
recruitment of teachers that states will undertake to fulfill the
requirement under the Right to Education Act, NCTE on Friday issued
detailed guidelines for TET. In the next few weeks, many states are
going to start the recruitment process.


Click Here for more details about TET Guidelines, Syllabus,
Eligibility, Pattern for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

TET will have two papers with multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Paper
I will be for those intending to become teachers for classes I-V.
Paper II will be for those aspiring to teach between classes VI and
VIII. Those interested in teaching from Class I to VIII will have to
appear for both papers.

Aspirants will have to clear a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) with at
least 60% marks to teach at any pvt or govt school. The test will be
conducted once a year, separately by state govts and the Centre No bar
on number of attempts to clear test. Aspirant can also take test again
to improve score Teacher eligibility test to be in 3 parts

Syllabus and Pattern:

The Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) is set to be made mandatory for
aspirants to be able to teach in private and government school. For
Paper I of the test, candidates will be tested on five subjects —
child development and pedagogy, language I (medium of instruction) and
language II (chosen from a list other than language I), mathematics
and environmental studies. Each section will have 30 questions of one
mark each. Questions on child development and pedagogy will focus on
educational psychology of teaching. Emphasis will be laid on
understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse learners.
Questions on language I and II will focus on proficiency, elements of
language, communication and comprehension abilities. MCQs on
mathematics and environmental studies will focus on concepts and
problem solving abilities.

Paper II will have three compulsory sections on child development and
pedagogy, language I and II. For mathematics and science teachers,
there will be 60 MCQs of one mark each. For social studies teachers,
there will be 60 MCQs of one mark each.

Guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

Guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)
Background and Rationale
The implementation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(RTE) Act, 2009 requires the recruitment of a large number of teachers across the country
in a time bound manner. Inspite of the enormity of the task, it is desirable to ensure that
quality requirement for recruitment of teachers are not diluted at any cost. It is therefore
necessary to ensure that persons recruited as teachers possess the essential aptitude
and ability to meet the challenges of teaching at the primary and upper primary level.
2 In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of
Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for
Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be
eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23,
2010. A copy of the Notification is attached at Annexure 1. One of the essential
qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the schools
referred to in clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act is that he/she should pass the Teacher
Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
3 The rationale for including the TET as a minimum qualification for a person to be
eligible for appointment as a teacher is as under:
i. It would bring national standards and benchmark of teacher quality in the
recruitment process;
ii. It would induce teacher education institutions and students from these
institutions to further improve their performance standards;
iii. It would send a positive signal to all stakeholders that the Government lays
special emphasis on teacher quality
4 The TET examination may be conducted by a suitable professional body
designated by the appropriate Government for the purpose. It will be conducted in
accordance with the Guidelines hereunder.
Eligibility
5 The following persons shall be eligible for appearing in the TET:
i. A person who has acquired the academic and professional qualifications
specified in the NCTE Notification dated 23rd August 2010.
ii. A person who is pursuing any of the teacher education courses (recognized by
the NCTE or the RCI, as the case may be) specified in the NCTE Notification
dated 23rd August 2010.
iii. The eligibility condition for appearing in TET may be relaxed in respect of a
State/UT which has been granted relaxation under sub-section (2) of section 23
of the RTE Act. The relaxation will be specified in the Notification issued by the
Central Government under that sub-section.
Structure and Content of TET
6 The structure and content of the TET is given in the following paragraphs. All
questions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with four
alternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking.
The examining body should strictly adhere to the structure and content of the TET
specified below.
7 There will be two papers of the TET. Paper I will be for a person who intends to be
a teacher for classes I to V. Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for
classes VI to VIII. A person who intends to be a teacher either for classes I to V or for
classes VI to VIII will have to appear in both papers (Paper I and Paper II).
Paper I (for classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination: one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content (All Compulsory)
(i) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 MCQs 30 Marks
(ii) Language I 30 " 30 "
(iii) Language II 30 " 30 "
(iv) Mathematics 30 " 30 "
(v) Environmental Studies 30 " 30 "
Nature and standard of questions
While designing and preparing the questions for Paper I, the examining body shall
take the following factors into consideration:
• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational
psychology of teaching and learning relevant to the age group of 6-11 years.
They will focus on understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse
learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good
facilitator of learning.
• The Test items for Language I will focus on the proficiencies related to the
medium of instruction, (as chosen from list of prescribed language options in
the application form).
• The Language II will be from among the prescribed options other than
Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from the available
language options and will be required to specify the same in the application
form. The test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language,
communication and comprehension abilities.

• The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will focus on the
concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of the
subjects. In all these subject areas, the test items shall be evenly distributed
over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject prescribed for classes I–V
by the appropriate Government.
• The questions in the tests for Paper I will be based on the topics of the
prescribed syllabus of the State for classes I–V, but their difficulty standard, as
well as linkages, could be upto the secondary stage.
Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination : one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content
(i) Child Development & Pedagogy (compulsory) 30 MCQs 30 Marks
(ii) Language I (compulsory) 30 " 30 "
(iii) Language II (compulsory) 30 " 30 "
(iv) (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher : Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs
of 1 mark each
(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies - 60 MCQs of 1 mark each
(c) for any other teacher – either 4(a) or 4(b)
While designing and preparing the questions for Paper II, the examining body shall
take the following factors into consideration:
• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on
educational psychology of teaching and learning, relevant to the age
group 11-14 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics,
needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and
the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
• The test items for Language I will focus on the proficiency related to the
medium of instruction, as chosen from list of prescribed options in the
application form.
• The Language II will be a language other than Language I. The person
may choose any one language from among the available options and as
in the specified list in the application form and attempt questions in the
one indicated by the candidate in the application form by him. The Test
items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language,
communication and comprehension abilities.
• The test items in Mathematics and Science, and Social Studies will focus
on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding
of these subjects. The test items of Mathematics and Science will be of
30 marks each. The test items shall be evenly distributed over different
divisions of the syllabus of that subject as prescribed for classes VI-VIII
by the appropriate government.
• The questions in the tests for Paper II will be based on the topics of the
prescribed syllabus of the State for classes VI-VIII but their difficulty
standard as well as linkages could be upto the senior secondary stage.
8 The question paper shall be bilingual – (i) in language(s) as decided by the
appropriate Government; and (ii) English language.
Qualifying marks
9 A person who scores 60% or more in the TET exam will be considered as TET
pass. School managements (Government, local bodies, government aided and unaided)
(a) may consider giving concessions to persons belonging to SC/ST, OBC,
differently abled persons, etc., in accordance with their extant reservation
policy;
(b) should give weightage to the TET scores in the recruitment process; however,
qualifying the TET would not confer a right on any person for
recruitment/employment as it is only one of the eligibility criteria for
appointment.
Applicability
10
(a) TET conducted by the Central Government shall apply to all schools referred to in
sub-clause (i) of clause (a) of section 2 of the RTE Act.
(b) TET conducted by a State Government/UT with legislature shall apply to :
(i) a school of the State Government/UT with legislature and local authority
referred to in sub-clause (i) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act; and
(ii) a school referred to in sub-clause (ii) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE
Act in that State/UT.
A school at (i) and (ii) may also consider eligibility of a candidate who has obtained
TET Certificate awarded by another State/UT with legislature. In case a State
Government/UT with legislature decides not to conduct a TET, a school at (i) and
(ii) in that State/UT would consider the TET conducted by the Central Government.
(c) A school referred to in sub-clause (iv) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act may
exercise the option of considering either the TET conducted by the Central
Government or the TET conducted by the State Government/UT with legislature.
Frequency of conduct of TET and validity period of TET certificate
11 The appropriate Government should conduct a TET at least once every year. The
Validity Period of TET qualifying certificate for appointment will be decided by the
appropriate Government subject to a maximum of seven years for all categories. But there
will be no restriction on the number of attempts a person can take for acquiring a TET
Certificate. A person who has qualified TET may also appear again for improving his/her
score.
Procedure for conduct of the Test
12 The examining body shall formulate a detailed procedure and lay down instructions
for conduct of the TET. Candidates should be informed that a very serious view will be
taken of any malpractice or impersonation.
Legal Disputes
13 All legal disputes with regard to conduct of TET shall be subject to the jurisdiction of
the appropriate Government.
Award of TET Certificate
14 The appropriate Government conducting the Test shall award a TET Certificate to
all successful candidates. The certificate should contain the name and address of the
candidate, date of birth, Registration No. year/month of award of Certificate, marks
obtained in each Paper, class level of its validity (Class I to V, class VI to VIII or both),
and, in case of classes VI to VIII, the subject area (Science and Mathematics, Social
Studies, etc.). The certificate may be electronically generated with adequate security
features. Appropriate may consider utilizing the services of specialized agencies for
issuing de-materialized (demat) TET certificates as a security feature to avoid any kind of
malpractice.
Monitoring
15 Following measures would be taken for monitoring the quality and administration of
the TET:
(a) The appropriate Government shall appoint a Nodal Officer for the purpose of
TET.
(b) The NCTE would organize meetings of the Nodal Officers at least once every
year.
(c) Every appropriate Government will forward a report of each TET to the NCTE
in a format to be prescribed by the NCTE.
(d) The NCTE shall maintain data base and be the repository of experts and
resources, including the technological tools for conduct of the TET, and shall
share it with the appropriate Government.

Tuesday, July 26, 2011

Shipping Corporation of India has rewarding opportunities

Shipping Corporation of India has rewarding opportunities for young
professionals for appointment at entry executive level as Assistant
Manager with a probation period of one year. Online applications are
invited for the following disciplines in the pay scale of
Rs.20600-46500/- :
Management : 06 posts
Naval Architect : 04 posts
Finance and Accounts : 08 posts


Age not exceeding 27 years as on 01/01/2011. Age relaxation for SC
/ST/OBC/PH candidates will be given as per Govt.

Application Fee : A Demands draft of Rs.250/- for General / OBC
Category (SC / ST / OBC candidates are exempted) drawn on a Mumbai
payable to "The Shipping Corporation of India Ltd".


How to Apply : Apply Online at SCI Website up to 02/09/2011 only. Take
a printout of the system generated application and affix a recent
passport size photograph on it, sign it and send it with application
fee to following address on or before 06/09/2011 to to Post Box No.
2091, Chennai - 600020. A copy of the application should be kept for
future record also.


For further detail, please visit http://www.shipindia.com/careers/shore.aspx

Common Bank Test in September 2011 -IBPS

announcement of common test for recruitment into public sector banks has finally arrived.The national level exams are to be conducted by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) for which scores would be awarded.

 

Posts: The common test is for recruitment of Probationary Officer or Management Traineevacancies that arise in 19 public banks -  Allahabad Bank,Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda, Bank of India, Bank of Maharashtra, Canara Bank, Central Bank of India, Corporation Bank, Dena bank, Indian Bank, Indian Overseas Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Punjab National Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Syndicate Bank, Union Bank of India, United Bank of India, UCO Bank & Vijaya Bank.

 

Dates: Online application registration: July 9 - August 1 ,2011

Common written test: September 18, 2011

 

Eligibility conditions to apply for common written test, as on 1.07.2011

* Age to be minimum: 20 yrs & maximum: 30 yrs

* Must have a degree in any discipline from a recognized university


 

Test pattern for common bank exam is same as previous banking recruitments with Objective & Descriptive papers for a total of 250 marks.For every wrong answer in objective test, 0.25 would be reduced as negative mark.

 

Scorecards: IBPS will send scorecards (valid for 1 year) by post to those who have  taken the test.Banks looking to recruit PO/ MT will notify eligibility (age, education, test score etc) & candidates who satisfy it have to apply for that bank by giving their  IBPS test score & other details.

 


 

Application: Fee of Rs.50 (SC/ST) or Rs.450 (others) for common test have to be paid online (credit/ debit cards) or through NEFT payment at any branch of banks mentioned above before July 30. After obtaining payment receipt, applicants can submit their application online at www.ibps.in for which you would receive a registration number &password in email/SMS. It is necessary to upload your signature & photo along with the online application

 

Common written test is compulsory to apply for bank jobs in India hereafter.Hence download the notification of this exam from their website here

United Bank of India P.O. Exam Solved Paper

United Bank of India P.O. Exam Solved Paper

General Awareness
(Exam Held On: 09-01-2011)

1. Animal assisted therapy is employed in-
(1) operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing

2. In broad gauge, the distance between the rail is-
(1) 1.00 meter
(2) 3 meters
(3) 1.67 meters
(4) 2.67 meters
(5) 0.76 meter

3. Who is lndra Nooyi?
(1) CEO Coca Cola
(2) CFO Pepsi Co.
(3) Managing Director Nano Division
(4) India's permanent representative to UNO
(5) None of these

4. ET Now and CNBC TVI8, TV Channels essentially broadcast-
(1) English news
(2) classic English movies
(3) political events and news
(4) business and economic news
(5) all important national and international news in English

5. Amongst the following sportsmen/women, who has won the first gold
medal at Guangzhou Asian Games?
(1) Yuan Xiachao
(2) Wang Mingluen
(3) Zhu Oianward
(4) Takeshi Matsuda
(5) Wu Jingbiao

6. The synagogue is generally -
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace

7. Deuce is a term used in-
(a) Polo (b) lawn tennis (c) badminton (d) boxing (e) Volley ball
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) c, d, a (4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e

8. ISl is the intelligence agency of-
(1) United Kingdom
(2) United States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India

9. Air Traffic Controller's job involves-
(a) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(b) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and
control centres
(c) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(d) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(e) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (a), (b)
(2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
(5) (c), (d), (e)

10 The eleventh 'five year plan' of India is for the five years ranging from-
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007 - 2012
(4) 2006 -2011
(5) none of these

11 DSCR indicates the ability of a company to-
(1) meet its current liabilities
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) none of these

12. An IPO is -
(1). initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the
first time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) none of these

13 A decreasing current ratio indicates-
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these

14. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on-
(1) the age of the company (2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken-by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company

15. With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated?
(1) Films
(2) Sports
(3) Social work
(4) Drama
(5) Short Stories

16. "Daniel Vettroi' is captain of which one of the following teams?
(1) New Zealand Cricket Team
(2) South Africa Cricket Team
(3) New Zealand Basket Ball Team
(4) West Indies Cricket Team
(5) Australia Cricket Team

17. Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at Guangzhou
Asian Games?
(1) Sania Mirza
(2) Saina Nehwal
(3) Gagart Narang
(4) Suranjay Singh
(5) Randhir Singh

18. Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding-
(a) the long term debt raissig capacity
(b) the short term solvency
(c) the reasons for fluctuafions in its stock prices
(d) the net worth of the company
(e) the profitability
(1)a, b, c,d (2) b, c, d (3) c, d,e, (4) c,a,b,d (5)a,b,d,e

19. Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because-
(1) the difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
(2) breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
(3) water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
(4) breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
(5) none of these

20. Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North-Eastern States?
(a) Jorhat (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Agartala (e) Dimapur
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) c, d, a (4) a, d, b (5) a, d, e

21. According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following
is the most preferred language for leisure reading among the Indian
Youth?
(1) Hindi
(2) Marathi
(3) Bengali
(4) Telugu
(5) English

22. Who is Dr. C. Rangarajan?
(1) Chairman, PMEAC
(2) Member, Planning Commission
(3) Chief Economist, IBA
(4) RBI Governor
(5) Member, Minority Commission

23. Which of the following is an oilseed?
(1) Garlic
(2) Clove
(3) Cardamom
(4) Cumin Seed
(5) Mustard

24. The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular
intervals and also in between What is the purpose of the same?
(A) To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit.
(B) To ensure that banks have enough liquidity.
(C) To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) All (A), (B), (C) (4) Only (B) &
(C) (5) None of these

25. The name of the white revolution is associated with ---
(1) J. V. Narlikar
(2) J. C. Bose
(3) Kurien Verghese
(4) M. S. Swaminathan
(5) C. Rangarajan

26. The cabinet committee recently approved the 'IGMSY' a scheme for
the welfare of the people of India. Who amongst the following will get
the benefit of the schame?
(1) Mothers and pregnant women
(2) Children upto 12 years of age
(3) Youth
(4) Old and Senior Citizens
(5) All the above

27. The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of
the following schemes?
(1) Jeevan Bharati Scheme
(2) ULIP
(3) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(4) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
(5) All of the above

28. Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author / poet who
received Jnanpith Award recently?
(1) Akhlaq Khan Shahryar
(2) ONV Kurup
(3) Khushwant Singh
(4) Krishna Sobti
(5) None of these

29. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book "A Bend in the River" ?
(1) V.S. Naipaul
(2) Arun Shourie
(3) Octavia Paz
(4) Daniel Defoe
(5) Walter Scott

30. Which of the following is called the pink city of India?
(1) Kolkata
(2) Lucknow
(3) Kota
(4) Hyderabad
(5) Jaipur

31. Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without new
assembly elections?
(1) Goa
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Jharkahnad
(4) Gujarat
(5) Delhi

32. A two days National level conference/event was organized in
Chandigarh in September 2010. Which was the conference/event?
(1) Miss India 2010'
(2) Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
(3) 'Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
(4) National Rabi Conference
(5) None of these

33. Which of the following Summits took place h Hanoi in October 2010?
(1) ASEAN Summit
(2) SAARC Summit
(3) G 20 summit
(4) G-8 Summit
(5) None of these

34. The Reserve Bank does not have an office in -
(1) Kanpur
(2) Jaipur
(3) Lucknow
(4) Bhopal
(5) Gulbarga

35. A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term-
(1) Bouncer
(2) Love
(3) LBW
(4) Punch
(5) Booster

36. Who amongst the following is the receipientof the Rajiv Gandhi
Khel Ratna Awart 2010?
(1) Ishant Sharma
(2) Hariom Singh
(3) M.S. Dhoni
(4) Sushil Kumar
(5) Saina Nehwal

37. India extended a credit of US$250 million to which of the
following countries, which will be used for infrastruclural
development there? .
(1) China
(2) Pakistan
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) Sudan

38. Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modem farming?
(1) Higher output using organic method
(2) Remunerative price
(3) Cropping pattern
(4) Land acquisition for non-agricultural needs
(5) None of these

39. In which one of the following States multi-thousand-foodgrain scam
has recently been noticed by the High Court?
(1) M.P.
(2) Orissa
(3) Bihar
(4) Jharkhand
(5) U.P.

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government?
(1) To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project
affected people
(2) To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating
the project affected people
(3) To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
(4) To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid
environmental damage
(5) None of these

41. A hockey player is supposed to know the. meaning of the term-
(1) Deaa Ball
(2) Bouncer
(3) LBW
(4) Penalty Corner
(5) Frozen Ball

42. Which one of the following have provided bailout package to
Ireland to deal with its debt crisis?
(1) EU only
(2) IMF only
(3) World Bank only
(4) Only (1) and (2) above
(5) All (1), (2) and (3) above

43. Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from
India to be included in the Top Ten 2010 Value creators Global Ranking
released by global management consulting firm BCG?
(1) RIL
(2) Tata Steel
(3) Bharti Airtel
(4) JSPL
(5) Bajaj Auto

44 Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for
exporters? .
(1) RBI
(2) SEBI
(3) IBA
(4) UNIDO
(5) UNESCO

45. BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various
newspapers recently. It is an agreement for-
(1) Investmept in a country
(2) Peaceful use of atomic power
(3) Allowing students to visit each other's nation
(4) Allowing people to come for medical treatment
(5) To form an alliance with each other in case of a war

46. In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged
Silver in Asiad 2010 Games
(1) Shooting
(2) Squash
(3) Taekwondo
(4) Ten-pin bowling
(5) Wushu

47. Which of the following terms is normally NOT seen in the field of
International Relations?
(1) Exchange Rate
(2) Free Trade
(3) MFN
(4) Alluvial Soil
(5) OECD

48. According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the
following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth?
(1) Agriculture
(2) Industry
(3) Services
(4) Mining
(5) None of these

49. Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for
OSCARs Award nominations from India? .
(1) Rang De Basanti
(2) Peepli Live
(3) Tare Zamin Par
(4) Lagan
(5) None of these

50. In which one of the following states, population growth rate is
lower than national average?
(1) Delhi
(2) Gujarat
(3) Chhattisgarh
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Orissa

Answer:

(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) 1 (6) 3 (7) 5( 8) 4 (9) 2 (10) 3 (11) 3
(12) 1 (13)3 (14) 4 (15) 1 (16) 1 (17) 3 (18) 3 (19) 3 (20) 5 (21) 5
(22) 1 (23) 5 (24) 3 (25) 3
(26)1 (27)3 (28)1 (29)1 (30) 5 (31) 3 (32) 5 (33) 1 (34) 5 (35) 2 (36)
5 (37) 4 (38) 4 (39) 5 (40) 1 (41) 4 (42) 1 (43) 1 (44) 4 (45) 1 (46)5
(47) 4 (48)1 (49) 2 (50) 3

Sunday, July 24, 2011

IETE M.Tech Computer Science Admissions 2011-12

The Institution of Electronics and Telecommunications Engineers
(IETE), Hyderabad Center is inviting applications from eligible
graduates and post graduates for admission into M.Tech. Computer
Science program for the academic year 2011-12. The IETE center is
located at Osmania University Campus, Hyderabad. This is a advanced
level course in computer science (ALCCS). Following are details of
program, eligibility and application procedure:

Course: ALCCS (Equivalent to M.Tech. in Computer Science in Regular
Part-Time mode). Eligibility: Applicants should have B.E./ B.Tech (in
any branch) / MCA / AMIE / AMIETE / M.Sc. (Maths and Electronics and
other allied sciences such as Physics / Statistics/ Operation Research
/ Computer Science). Duration of the course is 3 years (6 Semesters).

ALCCS is a 3 year Regular Part time Course offered at New Delhi and
Hyderabad and Chennai centers of IETE. The ALCCS has been recognized
by Ministry of Human Resources Development, Govt. of India as
equivalent to M.Tech in Computer Sciences. The degree will be accepted
for the recruitment to superior posts and services under Central
Government. The course is intended to impart advanced training in the
area of Scientific, Industrial and Commercial Software Development.

Interested candidates can obtain application cum prospectus from the
IETE , Hyderabad either in Cash or by post. Application fee is Rs. 250
by cash, Rs. 300 by post. Fee should be paid in the form of DD drawn
in favour of 'Honorary Secretary, IETE, Hyderabad'. Filled in
application forms should be sent to the institute along with required
copies of certificates on or before 6th August 2011. Entrance
examination will be conducted on 7th August 2011. You can obtain more
details from the official website http://www.ietehyd.org/acadamics.htm
. IETE also offer courses equivalent to B.Tech and Diploma in
Electronics for which notifications will be released separately.

gk on SOLAR SYSTEM


SOLAR SYSTEM



PlutoDiameter3,040 Kilometer
Moons1
Avg.Distance to Sun5,865.5 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun248 Years
Facts
  1. This Planet is the farthest, the smallest, the darkest, the coldest and arguably the strangest.
  2. It follows the most elongated and tilted orbit in the solar system.
  3. Its moon, Charon, is nearly half its size - appears like a bi-planet.
  4. NASA used a new infra-red telescope, has learned that Pluto is shrouded in frozen nitrogen- not methane as once thought. Nitrogen makes 78% of the air.



Neptune Diameter49,000 Kilometer
Moons 8
Avg.Distance to Sun4,497 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun165 Years
Facts
  1. It is denser & little smaller than Uranus.
  2. Its Atmosphere appear blue, with quickly changing white clouds often suspended high above an apparent surface.
  3. Atmosphere constituents are mostly hydrocarbon compounds.
  4. It Emits about 2.3 times more energy than it receives from the sun and the Aurora phenomenon was noticed by Voyager II.



Uranus Diameter52,096 Kilometer
Moons 17
Avg.Distance to Sun2,852.8 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun84 Years
Facts
  1. Waterly Uranus is the only planet that lies on its side.
  2. One pole, than the other, faces the Sun as it orbits.
  3. Voyager-I found nine dark, compact rings around the planet and a corkscrew-shaped magnetic field that stretches millions of kilometers.



MarsDiameter 6,755.2 Kilometer
Moons2
Avg.Distance to Sun225.6 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun687 Days
Facts
  1. The Viking probes failed to Beneath its thin atmosphere.
  2. Mars is barren, covered with pink soil and boulders.
  3. Long ago it was active, the surface is marked with dormant volcanoes and deep chasms where water once freely flowed.



VenusDiameter 12,032 Kilometer
MoonsNone
Avg.Distance to Sun107.52 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun225 Days
Facts
  1. Earth's twin in size and mass, sparingly hot Venus is perpetually veiled behind reflective sulfuric-acid clouds.
  2. Probes and radar mapping have pierced the clouds and carbon-dioxide environment to reveal flat, rocky plains & signs of volcanic activity.



Mercury Diameter4,849.6 Kilometer
Moons None
Avg.Distance to Sun57.6 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun88 Days
Facts
  1. Tiny Mercury, slightly larger than Earth's moon.
  2. Races along its elliptical orbital 1,76,000 kilometer per hour.
  3. A speed that keeps it from being drawn into the Sun's gravity field.
  4. The crated planet has no atmosphere, days are scorching hot and nights, frigid.


Earth Diameter12,732.2 Kilometer
Moons 1
Avg.Distance to Sun148.8 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun365 Days
Facts
  1. Uniquely moderate temperature and the presence of oxygen and copious water maker Earth the only planet in the solar system to support life.



Jupiter Diameter1,41,968 Kilometer
Moons 16
Avg.Distance to Sun772.8 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun11.9 Years
Facts
  1. Two Pioneer space probes photographed the Great Red Spot on the Solar system's largest planet.
  2. Voyagers I and II later showed it is an enormous eddy in the turbulent cloud cover. Earth the only planet in the solar system to support life.
  3. They also spotted dusty rings, three new moons and volcanoes on the Moon.



Saturn Diameter1,19,296 Kilometer
Moons 20 or more
Avg.Distance to Sun1,417.6 million KM
Time to Orbit the Sun29.5 Years
Facts
  1. Voyager I found that the celebrated rings of the golden giant Saturn are composed of thousands of rippling, spiraling bands just 100 feets thick.
  2. The moon Titan has a nitrogen atmosphere and hydrocarbons.



SunDiameter13,84,000 Kilometer
Statellites9 Planets
Age 4.5 billion years
Facts
  1. A rather ordinary, middle age star, the gaseous sun may reach a temperature of 27-millon degrees Celsius at its core.
  2. Its 11 years cycle is now approaching a solar maximum, a period marked by frequent sunspots and flares.
  3. On Earth, some radio waves will be disturbed and the amazing sky streamers called Northern Lights will appear.


Related Web Terms
Solar System Pluto Time to Orbit the Sun Neptune Solar System-Diameter Saturn Sun Jupiter Solar System-Earth Mercury Venus Solar System

Friday, July 15, 2011

Information about VITAMINS

VITAMINS

The Vitamins are necessary auxiliaries in metabolism. They combine with specific proteins, as parts of various oxidative enzyme systems which are concerned with the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat in the body. Thus, they are intimately involved in the mechanism which releases energy, carbon dioxide and water as the end products of metabolism.

Vitamins can be broadly divided into Fat Soluble and Water Soluble Vitamins. Vitamins A D E and K are fat-soluble vitamins. Vitamins B ( B1 B2 B6 B12 ) and C are water-soluble.
Vitamin - A
Year 1913

Retinol
Main Metabolic Function Essential for normal growth and development.
For normal function of epithelical cells and normal development of teeth and bones.
Prevents Night blindness.
Deficiency - Effects Retarded growth.
Reduced resistance to infection.
Abnormal function of gastrointestinal, and respiratory tracts due to altered epithelial membranes.
Interferes with production of "night purple".
Available Milk, Egg yolk, Ghee, Butter, Carrots, Tomatoes, Leafy and Yellow vegetables, Cod liver oil and Fresh fruits.
Nature Fat-Soluble
Year 1936

Thiamin
Main Metabolic Function An important aid in carbohydrate metabolism.
Needed for Proper functioning of the digestive tract and nervous system.
Beriberi.
Loss of muscle.
Deficiency - Effects Loss of appetite.
Impaired digestion of starches and sugars.
Various nervous disorder coordination.
Available Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B2
Year 1935

Riboflavin
Main Metabolic Function Needed in formation of certain enzymes and in cellular oxidation.
Prevents inflammation of oral mucous membranes and the tongue.
Deficiency - Effects Impaired growth, lassitude and weakness.
Causes cheillosis or glossittis.
May result in Photophobia and cataracts.
Available Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B6
Year 1934

Pyridoxine
Main Metabolic Function Acts as do other B vitamins.
To break down protein, carbohydrate and fat.
Acts as a catalyst in the formation of niacin from tryptophan.
Deficiency - Effects Increased irritability, convulsions and peripheral neuritis.
Anorexia, nausea and vomiting.
Available Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature Water-Soluble
Vitamin - B12
Year 1948

Cyanocobalamin
Main Metabolic Function Essential for development of red blood cells.
Required for maintenance of skin, nerve tissues, bone and muscles.
Deficiency - Effects Results in pernicious anaemia.
Weakness, fatigue, sore and cracked lips.
Available Peas, Beans and Cereals.
Nature Water-Soluble
Vitamin - C
Year 1919

Ascorbic Acid
Main Metabolic Function Needed for form the cementing substance, collagen, in various tissues (skin, dentine, cartilage and bone matrix).
Assists in woundhealing and bone fractures.
Deficiency - Effects Lowered resistance to infections.
Susceptibility to dental cavities, pyotthea and bleeding gums.
Delayed wound healing.
Specific treatment for Scurvy.
Available Fresh vegetables, Lemon, Orange, Tomatoes, Cabbage , Turnip and Lettuce (Beetroot).
Nature Water-Soluble
Year 1925

Cholecalciferol
Main Metabolic Function Requlates absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestinal tract.
Affords antiachitic activity.
Deficiency - Effects Interferes with utilisation of calcium and phosphorus in bone and teeth formation.
Development of bone disease, rickets and caries.
Available Butter, Milk, Ghee, Cod liver oil, Yolk of Eggs and also in Sunrays.
Nature Fat-Soluble
Vitamin - E
Year 1936

Tocopherols
Main Metabolic Function Protects tissues, cell membranes and Vitamin A against peroxidation.
Helps strengthen red blood cells.
Deficiency - Effects Decreased red blood cell resistance to rupture.
Available Germinating Wheat.
Nature Fat-Soluble
Vitamin - K
Year 1935

Phytomenadione
Main Metabolic Function Essential for formation of normal amounts of prothrombin and blood coagulation.
Deficiency - Effects diminished blood clotting time.
Increased incidence of hemorrhages.
Available Fish, Wheat and Oats.
Nature Fat-Soluble

Related Web Terms Vitamins Vitamin - A Vitamin - B6 Vitamin - B1 Metabolic Function Deficiency - Effects Vitamin - B2 Vitamin - K Vitamin - E Vitamin - D Vitamin - C Vitamin - B12 Vitamin Nature carbohydrates oxidative enzyme systems Proteins

Life Expectancy in selected countries

Life Expectancy

Life expectancy at birth (in years) for the year 2007, in selected countries.(Source : Human Development Report, 2009).

Country Life Expectancy
Japan 80.0
Norway 79.0
Iceland 79.0
Switzerland 78.6
Sweden 78.5
Hong Kong 78.5
Australia 78.2
Italy 78.2
France 78.1
Greece 78.1
Spain 78.0
Cyprus 77.8
Barbodos 76.4
Hungary 70.9
Lithuania 69.9
China 69.8
Thailand 68.8
Kyrgyzstan 67.6
Uzbekistan 67.5
Brazil 66.8
Mangolia 65.8
India 62.6
Iraq 62.4
Myanmar 60.1
Comoros 58.8
Madagascar 57.5
Lesotho 56.0
Sudan 55.0
South Africa 54.7
Cambodia 53.4
Gabon 52.4
Senegal 52.3
Djibouti 50.4
Djibouti 50.4
Niger 48.5
Tanzania 47.9
Chad 47.2
Gambia 47.0
Cote d'lvoire 46.7
Mozambique 45.2
Central African Rebublic 44.9
Ethiopia 43.3
Burundi 42.4
Rwanda 40.5
All Developing Countries 64.4
Least Developing Country 51.7
Industrialised Countries 77.7
World 66.7

World’s first double leg transplant carried out in Spain

 A Spanish medical team has carried out the world's first double leg transplant, hospital sources said in the eastern city of Valencia.
The young patient could not use prostheses, making a transplant the only alternative to him spending his life in a wheelchair, medical team leader Pedro Cavadas said earlier.


The operation was authorised in May 2010, but the medical team needed to wait for a donor. The operation, which lasted an entire night, was performed at Valencia's La Fe hospital. Cavadas has also previously carried out face and arm transplants. 

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